B
BlueinSD
Guest
Hey folks,
I’m having a discussion with a good friend of mine who is in Lutheran Seminary right now regarding whether or not the Roman Catholic Church is the same as the church of the Early Fathers. We were talking about beliefs of the fathers and practices and we came to talking about Church authority and where it comes from. I talked about how it’s not the teachings of individual fathers that is important, but rather the consensus of the Early Church. Such consensuses were reached at the early ecumenical councils, such as the Council of Nicaea. He asked me if the doctrines and dogmas established at Nicaea were infallible. My understanding of RCC beliefs have shown that the RCC views the findings and established teachings of Church Councils to be infallible. Therefore, what the church established at Nicaea are infallible.
My friend brought up Canon 6, which talks about the appointment of bishops and how the Bishop of Alexandria will have jurisdiction in his area, in the same manner as the Bishop of Rome. He then brought up that in today’s Catholic Church, only the Pope has the power to appoint bishops, whereas in the Early Church, the bishop of a particular area had the power to appoint bishops.
Below is the link to the Canons of the Council of Nicaea. Can someone explain to me how the RCC is not countering the Canons of the Early Church by having the Pope appoint bishops, when it appears in the Early Church that the power to appoint bishops in a certain region lied with the head bishop of that region? Thanks!
I’m having a discussion with a good friend of mine who is in Lutheran Seminary right now regarding whether or not the Roman Catholic Church is the same as the church of the Early Fathers. We were talking about beliefs of the fathers and practices and we came to talking about Church authority and where it comes from. I talked about how it’s not the teachings of individual fathers that is important, but rather the consensus of the Early Church. Such consensuses were reached at the early ecumenical councils, such as the Council of Nicaea. He asked me if the doctrines and dogmas established at Nicaea were infallible. My understanding of RCC beliefs have shown that the RCC views the findings and established teachings of Church Councils to be infallible. Therefore, what the church established at Nicaea are infallible.
My friend brought up Canon 6, which talks about the appointment of bishops and how the Bishop of Alexandria will have jurisdiction in his area, in the same manner as the Bishop of Rome. He then brought up that in today’s Catholic Church, only the Pope has the power to appoint bishops, whereas in the Early Church, the bishop of a particular area had the power to appoint bishops.
Below is the link to the Canons of the Council of Nicaea. Can someone explain to me how the RCC is not countering the Canons of the Early Church by having the Pope appoint bishops, when it appears in the Early Church that the power to appoint bishops in a certain region lied with the head bishop of that region? Thanks!