The Baptism of Jesus

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Holland

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In Mark 1:9-11 the last line reads “You are my beloved Son; with you I am well pleased.”

In Mathew 3:13-17 it reads, “This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased.”

Since Mark was written before Mathew could someone tell me why “You” was changed to “This” in this passage? It really changes the intent of the passage to me or am I just reading this wrong?
 
Good example of two different takes by two different Gospel writers.

We don’t know for certain that Matthew used Mark; one hypothesis is that they used either a common oral tradition for each independant account. 🤷
 
Holland said:
In Mark 1:9-11 the last line reads “You are my beloved Son; with you I am well pleased.”

In Mathew 3:13-17 it reads, “This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased.”

Since Mark was written before Mathew could someone tell me why “You” was changed to “This” in this passage? It really changes the intent of the passage to me or am I just reading this wrong?
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What difference does it make? To me it means exactly the same thing and does not change the intent.
 
Holland said:
Since Mark was written before Mathew could someone tell me why “You” was changed to “This” in this passage? It really changes the intent of the passage to me or am I just reading this wrong?
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It is not a fact that Mark was written before Matthew…but it does show a different perspective. One way that could reconcile the difference is if God’s address was to Jesus in the 3rd person, as if to address Him and also us. For example, if I was talking directly to the Pope in front of others, I might use the literary form, “I think Pope Benedict XVI will go down in history as one of the greatest popes.” I am speaking directly to him, but the address is a cross-over of 2nd and 3rd person.

Nevertheless, you bring up an interesting observation. I would imagine there are websites that address this quotation.
 
thistle said:
What difference does it make? To me it means exactly the same thing and does not change the intent.
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Well, in Mark the Spirit of God is speaking directly to Jesus; in Mattew the Spirit of God is speaking to the people.

I guess I am having this difficulty because the Bible I am reading (NAB) says Mark was probably written before Mathew and that Mathew was probably based on Mark. I just thought there might be some relevance to the words in that sentence being changed.
 
Holland said:
Well, in Mark the Spirit of God is speaking directly to Jesus; in Mattew the Spirit of God is speaking to the people.

I guess I am having this difficulty because the Bible I am reading (NAB) says Mark was probably written before Mathew and that Mathew was probably based on Mark. I just thought there might be some relevance to the words in that sentence being changed.
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The meaning is still the same!

By the way the majority of scholars believe Matthew was written before Mark and there is no evidence to show his Gospel was based on Mark’s.
 
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