The bible is corrupt?

  • Thread starter Thread starter dolphinlove
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There’s mno insult. As for dodge try reading what the experts in the field have written:

Mazzeo, Tilar J. Plagiarism and Literary Property in the Romantic Period. (Univ. of Pennsylvania Press, 2007).

Macfarlane, Robert Original Copy: Plagiarism and Originality in Nineteenth-Century Literature. (OUP, 2007).

I’ve been studying the concepts of authorship and opriginality for the past 6 years now.

I was repeating your own words back at you–short memory?
I used to have a Dodge. Was a Grand Caravan and it was kind of clumsy. Traded it in on a Saturn. much smaller vehicle and not as clumsy! When you consider that the Bible was written over a period of several thousand years by many different authors and then translated and retranslated ad nauseum it’s a wonder that there are so few errors in it. It
was written by humans under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. They wrote from a human standpoint what they knew and could observe in the world in which they lived.
 
Well this whole issue of “corruptness” because of this passage or that is, in my opinion, a very illogical approach to any book. Humans who corrupt, and on a very large scale as Muslims claim, will at least try to corrupt correctly, otherwise they’re utter idiots and the corruption of a book like the Bible needs too many people to do it * since it must combine all religious figures of Judaism and Christianity in different lands and languages- that is- an impossible scenario in light of geographical and historical obstacles*) , they can’t be all idiots who don’t realize the “contradictions”.

All in all, this whole theory of Biblical corruption is a geographical and historical impossibility, but Muslims and history aren’t really friends because they think a book called the Bible, or at least the Gospel of Jesus dropped from heaven, was confiscated by some priests on one city who cooked the biggest conspiracy theory in world history but they don’t know than many churches in different countries in the first century believed the same teachings taught by the apostles themselves before the NT as we know it today existed, and that it was an impossibility to be able to corrupt, in the exact same way, the belief of all these churches at the same time and in different lands and in differemt languages at that time in history, with all the eyewitnesses to either Jesus or His apostles or their disciples, not to mention the thousands of believers in different lands. If Muslims study history and use some common sense , they’ll realize their claim is a geographical and historical and even human impossibility. Anyway, no Mualim can tell you where, in which land, when, in which era, or by who was the “corruption” done …
 
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