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Bill_Pick
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DO christians say the Bible is to be taken literally word for word ? and is the Bible the sole and final authority for Christianty
sorry for the two questions
sorry for the two questions
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ralphinal
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Depends and depends and depends…
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Dirk_Skene
Guest
Hello to a fellow golfer 
No Bill, not so literally. Parts of it, yes. The Bible has several different types of litrature. Some history, some epic history, some very figurtive such as the poetry.
It all depends on which part you are reading.
No Bill, not so literally. Parts of it, yes. The Bible has several different types of litrature. Some history, some epic history, some very figurtive such as the poetry.
It all depends on which part you are reading.
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underdog
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We take the Bible literally when God intends for us to understand it literally. We take a word figurately when God intends it to be understood figurately. For example, when Jesus states that “I am the door”, we do not believe Jesus is literally a door, but rather the way to the Father. The same can be said when Jesus tells us that this is His Flesh, we do not believe we are literally eating the flesh of Jesus when we partake in communion. I hope this helps.
God is the final authority for all Christians. However, He speaks authoratively through the Bible.
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mercygate
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Catholics are the original Christians and the Catechism clearly states that we read the Bible “literally” – by which we mean "according to the original author’s intent. It delineates different literary forms in Scripture and that they are to be read according to their intent. For example, the Book of Jonah may be read EITHER as an allegory or taken as literal fact – there is no one “right” way to read it.
Other Christians als agree that the variety of literary forms makes for a variety of approaches to interpretation.
Some Fundamentalists, but not all, believe that ONLY a literalistic interpretation (e.g. six 24-hour days for creation) is permissible.
What prompted your question?
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AshleyBelle
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Code:
This is not accurate Catholic teaching.We take Christ at His word on this issue…as have all Christians until very recently in history.
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Bill_Pick
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it was from my son who btw is baptist,Thank you for you answer and may God bless
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tGette
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EDIT: This is not on thread topic…by I felt compelled…
So…are you saying that Jesus always spoke metaphorically and figuratively?
Maybe he was giving a parable when He said that His Father is greater than He is. Maybe He was speaking in parable when He told us that love our neighbor as ourselves. Maybe He was speaking in parable when He told us to love God with all our heart, all our soul and all our strength. Maybe He was speaking in parable when He told us that we should not be afraid.
Maybe He was speaking in parable when He said that He and the Father are One.
Maybe He was speaking in parable when He said that no one is good but God.
Maybe He was speaking in parable when He said He would send us the Paraclete.
Maybe everything He said was always said in a parable???
How do we know for sure when He was and when He was not?
Also…a door does not have to be made of wood or metal. Jesus is literally a door in what He mentions here. A door is a means of approach or access to something…and Jesus is that very thing. He is just a different kind of door…a door we are not used to seeing.
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underdog
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So why did Jesus speak in parables? Please answer.
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mercygate
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tGette
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To make things easier to understand.
Though…I have already been off thread topic…I do not want to continue.
Please start a new thread, if you so desire.
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ralphinal
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A Baptist would say yes to both but not always mean it.
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underdog
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Now that’s not what Jesus told His disciples when the disciples asked Jesus that exact same question. The question and answer is found in the Bible.
The disciples “why do you speak in parables”
Jesus’ answer - look in the Bible for Jesus’ answer to that question.
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tGette
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If the Bible were sole and final authority…the Apostles and Paul would have had a heck of time being Christians.
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mercygate
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Jesus said he spoke in parables (Mark 4 & Luke 8) so people would hear and NOT understand. Only to the Twelve did he confide the full meaning of His teaching. That’s why I’m sticking with the successors of the Twelve in Christ’s Apostolic Church.Now that’s not what Jesus told His disciples when the disciples asked Jesus that exact same question. The question and answer is found in the Bible.
The disciples “why do you speak in parables”
Jesus’ answer - look in the Bible for Jesus’ answer to that question.
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underdog
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Why did Jesus speak in parables?
We have two Catholic Christians who love God through Christ. However, they have mutually exclusive answers to the same question. So which Catholic Christian has the right answer to the same question, and why? Should we use the BIBLE to settle our disputes?
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mercygate
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On your terms, I win because I quoted Our Lord from Scripture as you taunted us to do.
We do use the Bible. This is not a dispute except you make it so.
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underdog
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Of course I agree with your answer because it came directly from divine revelation!
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Ruthie
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OK, folks, let’s not let Underdog hijack this thread.
There were two original questions:
The Catechism’s section on the Four Senses of Scripture (115-118) is good for everybody, not just for Catholics.
Since this is the “Non-Catholic Religions” forum, you will get different answers to that.
We Catholics say No, for logical reasons. At Pentecost, when the Word began to be publicly preached, there was no New Testament. Paul obviously had no New Testament to preach from - he wrote part of it! So where did he (and the other writers) get this knowledge of things that are not covered in the Gospels?
Paul also wrote many letters, and we know we do not have them all. Study of 1st and 2nd Corinthians reveals that he actually wrote 4 letters to them. What was in those letters?
John also says, in the last verse of his Gospel, that Jesus said and did much more than what got written down.
We Catholics have, in addition to the Bible, the teachings that were passed down by word of mouth, which we call the Apostolic Tradition. (Note the capital T. We also have many small-t traditions.) Much of this can be seen in the writings of the Early Church Fathers - a collection of people coming right down from the Apostles. Polycarp studied with John, Iraneus studied with Polycarp, and so on and so on. Together, the Bible and Tradition make up the Deposit of Faith.
God bless you, and Underdog, too!
Ruthie
There were two original questions:
There may be a few who say that. but most will say that there are times to take it literally, and times not to.
The Catechism’s section on the Four Senses of Scripture (115-118) is good for everybody, not just for Catholics.
(emphasis mine)
Since this is the “Non-Catholic Religions” forum, you will get different answers to that.
We Catholics say No, for logical reasons. At Pentecost, when the Word began to be publicly preached, there was no New Testament. Paul obviously had no New Testament to preach from - he wrote part of it! So where did he (and the other writers) get this knowledge of things that are not covered in the Gospels?
Paul also wrote many letters, and we know we do not have them all. Study of 1st and 2nd Corinthians reveals that he actually wrote 4 letters to them. What was in those letters?
John also says, in the last verse of his Gospel, that Jesus said and did much more than what got written down.
We Catholics have, in addition to the Bible, the teachings that were passed down by word of mouth, which we call the Apostolic Tradition. (Note the capital T. We also have many small-t traditions.) Much of this can be seen in the writings of the Early Church Fathers - a collection of people coming right down from the Apostles. Polycarp studied with John, Iraneus studied with Polycarp, and so on and so on. Together, the Bible and Tradition make up the Deposit of Faith.
God bless you, and Underdog, too!
Ruthie
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