Daniel is written in Hebrew from 1:1 through 1:21, then from 8:1 through 12:13. The rest of the protocanonical book is (2:1 through 7:28) are in Aramaic.I have read that the book of Daniel was written in Hebrew and Aramaic.
Does anybody know which parts were written in Hebrew and which parts in Aramaic?
Why do Protestants have a problem with some parts of this book, due to language?
Thanks.
It’s pretty easy to know even in translation where the Aramaic part begins:I have read that the book of Daniel was written in Hebrew and Aramaic.
Does anybody know which parts were written in Hebrew and which parts in Aramaic?
Oops yes, sorry, I mistyped that. Swap the Aramaic and Hebrew around.Hello Nelka.
1.1-2.4a and 8.1-12.13 are written in Aramaic; the rest is in Hebrew.
Protestant Bibles follow the Masoretic Text in Daniel, as almost all Bibles do elsewhere.
Hope that helps,
James.
To be more exact, the Greek version of Daniel is longer than the Hebrew/Aramaic one. What Protestants don’t accept as scripture is the stuff only found in that longer Greek version. It’s not really unusual to have two different versions of the same text circulating at that time, especially because there was this tendency to expand certain popular literature by adding in more stories and more dialogue, or mishmashing together different works that arguably have the same theme or the same person/s appearing on it into one. (Esther, Daniel, and the book of Enoch are three examples of this phenomenon I could name off the top of my head.) Tinkering with literary works in this way was not seen as problematic or wrong at all; it exemplified living tradition. And after all, who doesn’t want a little more extra?Some great answers but why was some written in Greek?
Well, if we suppose Daniel lived during the 7th-6th century BC, I think that would be a complication in the idea of him writing the Old Greek Daniel (it’s in Koine Greek, right?) To me it would just seem like - pardon the rough analogy - Geoffrey Chaucer writing a work in 21st-century modern English. I mean, Koine was only ‘invented’ by the time of Alexander the Great (356-323 BC), right?One thing that I have gravitated towards since studying the Old Greek Version of Daniel is that Daniel wrote more than copy and expanded it and maybe even made a version in Greek. The old Greek version, which is the Septuagint version, not Theodotion’s that eventually became the received Greek version of Daniel, has plenty of uniqueness, and appears to not be a translation of the Masoretic type but rather a translation of another manuscript tradition or an independent version that Daniel may have written himself. Its well worth reading.
I tend to agree with your assessment. While I can believe there was indeed a Daniel and that there may be traditions that came from the Exile, I’m more of the school that holds that Daniel was actually codified during the Hellenistic period and was addressed to the persecuted Jews as a means of encouraging them.Well, if we suppose Daniel lived during the 7th-6th century BC, I think that would be a complication in the idea of him writing the Old Greek Daniel (it’s in Koine Greek, right?) To me it would just seem like - pardon the rough analogy - Geoffrey Chaucer writing a work in 21st-century modern English. I mean, Koine was only ‘invented’ by the time of Alexander the Great (356-323 BC), right?
I pretty much agree with this. There may have well been a Daniel who lived during the Exile and who was a very respected and venerable figure in the Jewish community (so much so that Ezekiel mentioned him alongside Job and Noah - yes, I think there’s no need to question that Daniel the prophet is intended there). Soon, different stories were told about Daniel and his friends, some of which were collected together and became Daniel 1-6. (A couple of others may be the genesis of the Greek ‘additions’ to the book.)I tend to agree with your assessment. While I can believe there was indeed a Daniel and that there may be traditions that came from the Exile, I’m more of the school that holds that Daniel was actually codified during the Hellenistic period and was addressed to the persecuted Jews as a means of encouraging them.
Good point, what was I thinking! Unless he wrote in Archaic Greek and the version evolved with the language. But highly unlikely and not worth thinking about. I eat my words! Haha!Well, if we suppose Daniel lived during the 7th-6th century BC, I think that would be a complication in the idea of him writing the Old Greek Daniel (it’s in Koine Greek, right?) To me it would just seem like - pardon the rough analogy - Geoffrey Chaucer writing a work in 21st-century modern English. I mean, Koine was only ‘invented’ by the time of Alexander the Great (356-323 BC), right?
Just to explain this for the people who don’t know what the heck we’re talking about:One thing that I have gravitated towards since studying the Old Greek Version of Daniel is that Daniel wrote more than copy and expanded it and maybe even made a version in Greek. The old Greek version, which is the Septuagint version, not Theodotion’s that eventually became the received Greek version of Daniel, has plenty of uniqueness, and appears to not be a translation of the Masoretic type but rather a translation of another manuscript tradition or an independent version that Daniel may have written himself. Its well worth reading.