
Sure, and I linked Thomas saying that, and pointed out he said that.
As I said, look at your post #506 and you’ll see that statement had nothing to do with what you quoted from me. Mind reader I am not.
That would mean in post #268 you wrote “Buddhism is certainly relevant to the topic because it is concerned with an aspect of reality which atheists reject. Do you believe it is restricted to human -]sets/-] species?”
I bow to your expertise in making all things hidden.
Your opinion that Jesus is authorizing a philosophical doctrine of divine simplicity in John 10:30 isn’t shared by Thomas for the reasons he gives.
There’s a perfect example of rabbits and hats. What has it to do with 1 Cor 1? With what Paul quotes from Isaiah and Jeremiah? With what he says there?
Be honest, in your headlong rush to take things out of context, did you realize that Paul doesn’t even use the same word? The NIV does indeed have
philosophy in Col 2 and
philosopher in 1 Cor 1. But in Col 2 Paul wrote
φιλοσοφίας / philosophias / philosophy while in 1 Cor 1 he wrote
συζητητὴς / syzētētēs / debater.
Great that you’re looking at commentaries, but don’t forget that on that same site you’ll find the Greek and interlinear. Have a look at
the commentaries on that verse, about who Paul is referring to. As Matthew Poole says “What have they done by all their philosophy and moral doctrine, as to the turning of men from sin unto God, from ways of iniquity unto ways of righteousness, in comparison of what we, the ministers of Christ, have done by preaching the doctrine of the gospel, and the cross of Christ?”
Still true today. How many people have philosophers brought to salvation compared with Catholic priests and pastors? (Think carefully before answering.) I’ll say it again: of course Paul isn’t saying all philosophy is worthless, he’s saying that no god of the philosophers, no mere theory, hung on a cross and died for us.