The Canon - for Eastern Orthodox

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There are no “extra books” in the Orthodox Canon. The Orthodox use for their Old Testament the Septuagint (LXX) which is the same Greek Translation that was used from 200 years before Christ’s birth until about 40 years after Christ’s Resurrection…it is the very same Greek Septuagint (LXX) which Jesus used. There is nothing added.

The Catholics did remove a few of the books for some reason though. I am still waiting to find out WHY Catholics felt it was necessary to remove books from the Bible! And why they thought it was OKAY to do so.
We also use the Septuigent Monica, you should know this. Further, as your Orthodox Bretheren are claiming each individual church is allowed to come up with it’s own canon, I find it rather interesting that you’re claiming any church “removed books from the bible”.

More over, I’m still interested in how and where exactly the Eastern Church defines the canon.
 
Dear brother crazzeto,
More over, I’m still interested in how and where exactly the Eastern Church defines the canon.
This is not a legitimate question. The Canon was defined in the Western Church because of challenges and disputes over the matter. The Eastern Church (and also the Oriental Church) did not go through that. So for you to insist that there must be a point of definition for the Canon is not a valid.

But if you must know, the Seventh Ecumenical Council affirmed the many canons in existence throughout the Church, slightly different they may have been from region to region.

The bare minimum seems to be the Canon of the Latin Church.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother crazzeto,

This is not a legitimate question. The Canon was defined in the Western Church because of challenges and disputes over the matter. The Eastern Church (and also the Oriental Church) did not go through that. So for you to insist that there must be a point of definition for the Canon is not a valid.

But if you must know, the Seventh Ecumenical Council affirmed the many canons in existence throughout the Church, slightly different they may have been from region to region.

The bare minimum seems to be the Canon of the Latin Church.

Blessings,
Marduk
If your in communion with Rome, then it’s defined very clearly for you as well. See Trent.
 
If your in communion with Rome, then it’s defined very clearly for you as well. See Trent.
What was defined by Trent is the bare minimum. Please read the canon on the Canon (no pun intended :D) from Trent:
But if any one receive not, as sacred and canonical, the said books entire with all their parts, as they have been used to be read in the Catholic Church, and as they are contained in the old Latin vulgate edition; and knowingly and deliberately contemn the traditions aforesaid; let him be anathema.

Do you know of any Catholic Church that does not receive the books defined by Trent? I highly doubt it. The other Books present in the Bibles of Eastern and Oriental Churches do not contradict Catholicity in any way.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
We also use the Septuigent Monica, you should know this. Further, as your Orthodox Bretheren are claiming each individual church is allowed to come up with it’s own canon, I find it rather interesting that you’re claiming any church “removed books from the bible”.

More over, I’m still interested in how and where exactly the Eastern Church defines the canon.
I know that you use the Septuagint minus 3 books.

The Orthodox Church uses the Septuagint for the Old Testament books. My Orthodox Bretheren are correct that each individual church, through synod or council can come up with their own additional list - like to include the New Testament for example. I know that the Orientals (who are not Canonically Orthodox) have added more than that - the Ethiopians especially.

You may find it interesting that I have owned the Greek Septuagint and therefore know what books are included in the original Greek and have been able to compare with my Catholic Bible to see what books the Catholics removed and have also been able to compare with my Protestant Bible to see what books the Protestants removed. I have heard the “defense” of Protestants of why they removed the books, but I have still yet to hear the “defense” of Catholics as to why they removed the books.

There is no need to “define” a canon of Sacred Scripture in the Orthodox Church.
 
So are you saying each church, individually is making this choice?

Edit
And how are these Churchs making the determination that certain books aren’t heretical… Of course from my perspective the problem extend beyond this. The bible is the inspired word of God, i.e. God is the author. Being “not heretical” isn’t good enough, it need to legitimatlly be the inspired word of God. For instance at Carthage (and Hippo, and other times) there were books which were determained “profitable for reading”, but not inspired thus they aren’t in the compiliation of Sacrade Scripture.
It’s heretical if it contradicts Church doctrine. As a Catholic you should know that the doctrine preceeded the collection of the scriptures. Additionally everything outside of what the Protestants use is simply considered good to read.

I do believe the NT was standardized, although I can’t remember when.
 
It’s heretical if it contradicts Church doctrine. As a Catholic you should know that the doctrine preceeded the collection of the scriptures. Additionally everything outside of what the Protestants use is simply considered good to read.

I do believe the NT was standardized, although I can’t remember when.
As a good Catholic, I know that doctrine may not violate scripture and that scripture does not contradict doctrine. Doctrine in and of it’s self must be based upon something, that something is the whole of Apistolic Tradition, or as the Orthodox Fathers called it the “deposit of faith”. This deposite is comprised of both the Oral and written traditions and Paul the Apostle states.

Edit
NT was Standarized at Hippo, Carthage (twice, in a row), confirmed by Florance in ~1450 and made a matter of doctrine at Trent. Obviously the last two apply to the Church of the West mainly as the Eastern Church was out of commuion in 1054, then depending upon how you read history in and out of communion over the next 400 years and finally permenantly out as of the 1400’s.
 
If your in communion with Rome, then it’s defined very clearly for you as well. See Trent.
Trent was a Council of the Roman Catholic Church of the Latin Rite, the only Rite affected by the Protestant Reformation. I’m not sure if the Ambrosian, Mazaraabic or Carthusian Catholic Churches fell under the Council of Trent or not since those Churches are a part of the Latin Rite - so I suppose it is possible.

The Catholics of the Alexandrian Rite, Antiochian Rites, Armenian Rite, Chaldean Rite and Byzantine Rite (which make up 22 Catholic Churches outside of the Roman Rite) were not under the Council of Trent and do not necessarily use the same books of the Old Testament as the Roman Catholics of the Latin Rite.

I’ve already mentioned that the Melkite Greek Catholics do not use the “Catholic” Bible of the Roman Rite because it is missing some of the books of the Old Testament. When I was a member, I was told to purchase the New Oxford Bible with Apocrapha as it was only accepted English Translation of the entire Old Testament Scriptures - accepted by the Melkite Greek Catholic Church.
 
The reality seems to be…
  1. There is a great, historic, ecumenical embrace around 39 OT books and 27 NT books. In all of Christianity.
  2. There are an addition dozen or so books, all before Christ, often called DEUTERO books (the meaning of that word says much!). These are very rarely quoted from, and at most one doctrine stems from such. One set of DEUTERO books is accepted by tradition (informally) by the Oriental Orthodox. Another unique and smaller set is accepted by common consensus by the Eastern Orthodox. And another unique and smaller set is accepted by action of the Council of Trent by The Catholic Church. The three that accept these (in one way or another) don’t agree with each other.
JL: DEUTERO means second list, the first list was not disputed all agreed. The NT also has DEUTERO or disputed books such as Hebrews, Revealation, Jude and a couple others I can’t recall off hand.
 
Dear brother Joe,
Here is a link to a table on wikipedia.

Here

Not sure how accurate it is. Also, I know the Ethiopian canon is different. I’m not sure about the other Oriental Orthodox Churches (maybe mardukm can help?)
The history of the Canon in the OO Churches hasn’t exactly been set in stone, even well into the late Middle Ages. As a general guideline, the Coptic Orthodox Canon basically mirrors the Latin Canon (most likely due to the influence of that other great African Church of Carthage), the Syriacs, as far as the NT is concerned, follow the Peshitta (which traditionally contains 3 less books), and the Armenians also mirror the Latin Canon.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
No offence, but I really don’t see how your in a position to claim the CC removed any books from the bible based upon what is written here.
I don’t think she did, but it is a natural question that arises from the Catholic claim that Protestants removed books.
Doesn’t every Church get to decide for them selves? Apparently the Russia Orthodox have still more books in the bible than your tradition has, so what’s the Greek Tradition’s excuse for removing books as compared to the Russian Tradition?
Those additional books are ones simply considered “profitable to read” as you’ve admitted certain books within the Catholic Canon are. Outside those books within what Catholics call the protocanon, and those utilized in the litergical calendar, the churches can decide which of the ancient texts they want to recommend for reading.
See the problem here? That’s why the Catholic Church (which your church was a part of at the time the decission was made) had several Councils to resolve the matter.
The Catholic Church didn’t definitively decide until the Council of Trent actually. Those local councils weren’t even considered binding on the Catholic Church.
Because it’s the inspried Word of God, all of us at one point anyway saw it as necessary to agree upon the canon for the reasons I’ve previously stated, and others.
“All of us” being just the one local Church based out of Rome.
Additionally I’m wondering what your view (since it feels different from Joseph’s) regarding doctrine and the bible. It has been claimed that the bible is not a source of doctrine, but in fact it is the very source material (in addition to tradition) from which doctrine is drawn.
Brush up on your Church History. That is a very Protestant statement and is a misunderstanding of Catholic Dogma. Catholics and Orthodox are in agreement that the Church predates the Bible, and the Bible is only one part of Holy Tradition. Not all doctrine is drawn from the Bible, it simply never contradicts the Bible, since the Bible is drawn from that same tradition.
I’m glad that you (Monica) do view the bible as the inspired word of God, but do all Orthodox agree? Does Joseph agree? If the bible is just another book like any other, which also has been suggested then why are we basing doctrine upon the material found in it?
Of course it is the inspired Word of God. The Church was led by the Holy Spirit as to which books to select, but not all books are of equal importance.
 
Edit
NT was Standarized at Hippo, Carthage (twice, in a row), confirmed by Florance in ~1450 and made a matter of doctrine at Trent. Obviously the last two apply to the Church of the West mainly as the Eastern Church was out of commuion in 1054, then depending upon how you read history in and out of communion over the next 400 years and finally permenantly out as of the 1400’s.
**None of those councils you mention were Ecumencial. **
First two were local Church synods/councils.

Ferrara-Florence was an attempt at an Ecumencial Council to unite the East and the West, but it was not inspired by the Holy Spirit and actually caused the final separation of the Roman Catholic Church from the Orthodox Church.

Trent was a Latin Rite Roman Catholic Council as I explained earlier called to recover from the Reformation which affected only the Latin Rite Roman Catholic Church.
 
I don’t think she did, but it is a natural question that arises from the Catholic claim that Protestants removed books.
Are you reading her posts? She is constantly making this challenge, and her own faith tradition really doesn’t support being able to make this challenege as far as I know.
Those additional books are ones simply considered “profitable to read” as you’ve admitted certain books within the Catholic Canon are. Outside those books within what Catholics call the protocanon, and those utilized in the litergical calendar, the churches can decide which of the ancient texts they want to recommend for reading.
Yes, but when I say “profitable for reading” I’m talknig about books such as The Didache. What I mean is that when the Church finally sat down the sort out this mess, they didn’t condem the work but they also declared the book not insipred. There for, they are not in the canon of Sacred Scripture.
The Catholic Church didn’t definitively decide until the Council of Trent actually. Those local councils weren’t even considered binding on the Catholic Church.
“All of us” being just the one local Church based out of Rome.
Correction, no ecumenical council declared the canon until Trent. However the Canon declared at Trent is the same Canon which was declared at synod after synod, as well as by all Popes.
Brush up on your Church History. That is a very Protestant statement and is a misunderstanding of Catholic Dogma. Catholics and Orthodox are in agreement that the Church predates the Bible, and the Bible is only one part of Holy Tradition. Not all doctrine is drawn from the Bible, it simply never contradicts the Bible, since the Bible is drawn from that same tradition.

Of course it is the inspired Word of God. The Church was led by the Holy Spirit as to which books to select, but not all books are of equal importance.
You are correct, the Church predates the bible. But the statement is enitrly valid.
 
As a good Catholic, I know that doctrine may not violate scripture and that scripture does not contradict doctrine. Doctrine in and of it’s self must be based upon something, that something is the whole of Apistolic Tradition, or as the Orthodox Fathers called it the “deposit of faith”. This deposite is comprised of both the Oral and written traditions and Paul the Apostle states.
It is not a question of “may not” it is that they logically can not, since both come from Holy Tradition, and Holy Tradition can not contradict itself.
Edit
NT was Standarized at Hippo, Carthage (twice, in a row), confirmed by Florance in ~1450 and made a matter of doctrine at Trent. Obviously the last two apply to the Church of the West mainly as the Eastern Church was out of commuion in 1054, then depending upon how you read history in and out of communion over the next 400 years and finally permenantly out as of the 1400’s.
Actually there were disputes on the NT canon for quite some time after. I can’t rembember the details, I’d have to look at my notes, but I seem to recall the West had issues with Hebrews and Jude and the East didn’t like Revelations. In the end all were accepted.
 
Yes, but when I say “profitable for reading” I’m talknig about books such as The Didache. What I mean is that when the Church finally sat down the sort out this mess, they didn’t condem the work but they also declared the book not insipred. There for, they are not in the canon of Sacred Scripture.
Then what is your argument, those additional books are not considered protocanon.
Correction, no ecumenical council declared the canon until Trent. However the Canon declared at Trent is the same Canon which was declared at synod after synod, as well as by all Popes.
We don’t recongnise Trent, and all those “Synods” were in the West, as were the Popes. Seems you have your answer to your original question, namely the West never had Supremacy in the East.
You are correct, the Church predates the bible. But the statement is enitrly valid.
No it isn’t. Doctrine is not based on the Bible, and to say such a thing indicates you might be better off in a Church which accepts the Bible as the source of Doctrine. The Catholic Church certainly does not.
 
It is not a question of “may not” it is that they logically can not, since both come from Holy Tradition, and Holy Tradition can not contradict itself.

Actually there were disputes on the NT canon for quite some time after. I can’t rembember the details, I’d have to look at my notes, but I seem to recall the West had issues with Hebrews and Jude and the East didn’t like Revelations. In the end all were accepted.
You’re correct these disputes existed, at in so far as anything I’ve read it was settled by ~400 with Hippo, Carthage 1 & 2 culimating with St. Augustine requesting that the documents of Carthage be sent to the Pope for Approval despite the fact that it was a regional coucil.

You can see this dispute in Eucibius’s History of the Church, however this book dates to 310 AD.

Regarding Traditon (written or not), doctrine quite simply can not violate tradition regardless of what form it comes in. To suggest that it would be valid and possible for the Church (any church) to come up with a doctrine which actually does contradict any form of tradition, is to suggest that church can do whatever it pleases. That, is an extrodinarly protestant line of thinking.
 
Dear brother crazzeto,
Correction, no ecumenical council declared the canon until Trent. However the Canon declared at Trent is the same Canon which was declared at synod after synod, as well as by all Popes.
My posts #42 and #44 amply responds to this, IMHO.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
You’re correct these disputes existed, at in so far as anything I’ve read it was settled by ~400 with Hippo, Carthage 1 & 2 culimating with St. Augustine requesting that the documents of Carthage be sent to the Pope for Approval despite the fact that it was a regional coucil.
And the East should care about all this, why?
Regarding Traditon (written or not), doctrine quite simply can not violate tradition regardless of what form it comes in. To suggest that it would be valid and possible for the Church (any church) to come up with a doctrine which actually does contradict any form of tradition, is to suggest that church can do whatever it pleases. That, is an extrodinarly protestant line of thinking.
I also suggest you do a bit of research into the Orthodox Church before you ask your next question, in addition to making sure you understand the Catholic position. The idea that one can create doctrine is quite blasphemous to Orthodox Christians. We hold to that doctrine which was given to us by Christ and the Apostles, and no more. Doctrine is unchanging. Therefore the Church can not come up with doctrine that contradicts Holy Tradition without ceasing to be The Church.
 
Grace and Peace,

I don’t know all the ins and outs of the Biblical Canon… all I know if the Orthodox Study Bible is absolutely the ‘best’ Bible I have and I have a lot. 😛

Roman Catholics should have put something like this out a long time ago. We should be ashamed that our Eastern Brothers and Sisters beat us to it.
 
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