S
sw85
Guest
Yes, I am asking that. It is a logical proof after all, and if the teaching is flawed then there must be a flaw in the proof. If not, then the claim that the teaching is erroneous is itself erroneous.If I understand correctly, you are asking me to point out a flaw in the logic against contraception?
The logic here pretty much is saying that using a condom to avoid/postpone pregnancy is illicit because it is not natural, while using NFP to do the exact same thing is licit because it IS natural.
The flaw in this logic stems from the fact that other things that are man made and artificial are not illicit. So the argument holds no water.
As I pointed out here (in the first of those two links), “natural” in the sense the Church is referring to does not mean “occurring in nature” but “consistent with the nature of.” As I said then, the problem is one of means: of the three means available to avoid conception (NFP, abstinence, and contraception), the first two are consistent with the nature of the human sexual faculty and the latter is not.
This, I think, is relatively clear from the OP; it was only later that another poster made mention of contraception being unnatural because it is “man-made” (which I don’t think was intended as a serious argument) and it is that to which your responses have exclusively been directed. But “nature,” in that sense of the word, has nothing to do with the Church’s teachings.