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Warrior1979
Guest
No. I am suggesting that the link between contraception use and abortion is week, at best. One can’t say: “50% of abortions are done by people that use contraceptives therefore contraceptives cause people to have abortions,” then simply dismiss the other 50% that don’t use contraceptives. One can argue the opposite and say the lack of contraceptive use causes people to have abortions.Are you suggesting that the other 46% of abortions is due to NFP? Perhaps I am misunderstanding.
One has to be careful with the manner stats are used, and when comparing different time periods. The magnitude of abortions has increased, simply due to technology and personal privacy issues. We have no idea how many abortions were performed in the past, because they were illegal and not discussed, though it is certainly reasonable to assume that more happen today.Are you also suggesting that the number of abortions seen today has absolutely nothing to do with an increase in contraceptive use? How many abortions were performed before 1930?
I don’t believe that it is the contraceptives per se, but rather the change in societal values. Naturally some will argue that is due to contraceptive use, but I believe that it has more to do with economic changes in society.