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NDfan
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Nate the Greek that is used is the word Amnesis which literally means remembrance. When a Greek would do something in amnesis they literally would stop everything they are doing and meditate on the event they are trying to recall. This is how the Jews recall the Exodus when they participate in the seder meal. They try to make the past the present by trying to re-live in their minds the actual Exodus.I have heard that the translation, “do this is remembrance of me” is weak. I am not versed in ancient languages, but I’ve heard the original Greek is much clearer, more like “bring this back to life again.” Does bread have life? It certainly does if its God’s life. Why would God animate mere bread with his spirit? Simple - He doesn’t. He makes it Him.
But the elements of the seder meal are purely symbolic. The 3rd cup of redemption taken after the meal is the same cup Jesus issued to the Apostles that represented the new covenant, red wine mixed with warm water. This symbolized the blood of the passover lambs sacrificed for the redemption from Pharaoh. Given the Temple has been destroyed the Jews have no way of sacrificing a Lamb for the passover so they use a shank bone called the Zeroah to symbolize the lamb. Along with the 3rd cup of redemption the Jews after 70AD starting eating an olive-sized piece of bread to symbolize the body of Lamb. Sound familiar?
This part of the seder is called Afikomen and is exactly what Jesus was pre-figuring when they finished the passover meal and HE instituted the supper. Jesus replaced the bread and red wine that symbolized the lambs of the passover with HIS body and blood. That’s why after HE issues the 3rd cup of redemption HE states that he will not drink this fruit of the vine again until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.
Jesus certainly clarifies that they are drinking wine and not literal blood.
But Jesus did clarify HIS message stating that He was speaking spiritually. The problem was the Jews could not understand that the Messiah would never ask them to drink blood that was expressly forbidden in Leviticus. Why would Jesus disregard HIS Father’s law unless HE was speaking figuratively?Don’t fight John 6, its meaning is clear. Especially from what Jesus doesn’t do. Disciples abandon him, and he lets them go. No plea that he was merely being poetic; no words of explanation about his flowery exposition. Jesus was asking Jews, forbidden to drink blood, to break Mosaic law, and He made no apologies for it. Those that abandon Him are doomed; the stakes couldn’t be higher, and He lets them go.
Jesus says in verse 35: whoever believes in me shall never thirst and then immediately in 36 But I said to you that you have seen me and yet do not believe.
Following in verse 40 Jesus states:
40 For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.”
Instead of listening to Jesus they grumbled over the fact that HE stated HE was the bread that came down from Heaven. Then right away in verse 47 & 48 Jesus states:
47 Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever believes has eternal life. 48 I am the bread of life.
This whole discourse of eating flesh and drinking blood is figurative language for believing in Jesus which is confirmed by verse 54:
Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.
This is a figurative re-statement of verse 40:
40 For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him should have eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.”
So one needs to ask is it believing in Jesus or literally eating HIS flesh that gives eternal life? To confirm we must re-examine scripture. No where in scripture do we see eating flesh as a way to have eternal life. Obtaining eternal life is always equated with believing. Communion is our way of outwardly professing we believe in Jesus.
With that being said one valuable lesson I learned in Theology is that when Jesus gives us something to do that involves HIM, HE is usually present. i.e. Where 2 or 3 are gathered in my name I am there with you and when we get baptized the Holy Spirit fills us. So I would say it’s safe to assume Jesus is with us during communion. But more spiritually than a change to literal flesh and blood. When the water at the wedding feast at Cana changed into wine, it literally became wine. It wasn’t water that was really wine underneath.
Jesus would never be cruel. The discourse made in John 6 is explained within the same sermon Jesus gave at Capernaum. He rectifies eating flesh and drinking blood by telling them they must believe. If you notice not everyone left Jesus after this. The Apostles were still there because as Peter states in verse 68, “we have believed,and have come to know, that you are the Holy One of God”.Jesus made no bones about explaining parables that His disciples didn’t understand throughout the Gospel. Why wouldn’t He do it in this case? He spoke clearly. His words were plain and to be taken literally. To let souls die over language misinterpretation from God’s own mouth would be cruel, and God, Jesus, was certainly not cruel.
But other disciples stayed as well as we see in verse 66 “After this many of his disciples turned back and no longer walked with him”. It doesn’t say they all left except the 12. It says many left, then Jesus turned to the 12. So obviously others comprehended what he was saying.
I don’t know if these arguments have already been made, I didn’t read the whole post, mostly just your first post and the last few replies.
PEACEI am feeling quite fervent about this tonight…I just got back from my parish’s Forty Hours Benediction!

