U
Uzziah1
Guest
In my opinion, THE reason why Mary HAD to have been immaculately conceived was that she donated the ova. I.e., flesh tainted with the stain of Original Sin would have been an ineligible vehicle for God’s perfect contribution.Since Mary knew not a man, was Jesus literally cloned from Mary?![]()
But, in my opinion, the Holy Spirit miraculously contributed the portion normally contributed by a human male.
There is a line in the Book of Wisdom, “For no king has any different origin or birth, but one [way] is the entry into life for all [kings]; and in one same way they leave it.” Wisdom 7:5-6.
I believe that the “origin” phrase refers to the fact that His mother contributed her ova, and God the Father the miraculous equivalent of male seed.