However what was the context at Trent ?
Do you think it is wrong to allow free will to leave church and wrong then to bar from sacraments thereafter until repentance (believing again)?
Blessings
Hi Benhur,
Sorry it’s been a few days. I wish I could say my days are filled with internet play. Sorry about the length of this post. If you would believe it, I cut out a lot.
Your first question was Trent’s context. I’m guessing with regard to the text. Let us start with the bigger picture.
Trent was a response to the reformation with the goal of re-emphasizing the CC’s unchanged teachings.
We can see this in the general opening statements (
thecounciloftrent.com/), and in the Session 7 opener I put below.
We can only imagine the chaos, right? (We are seeing it today in efforts for modern reforms as well)
Prior to Luther, there were folks who did the same thing that Luther did in determining a different understanding of subject matter from the historical Church. So what is the difference? Why did Luther’s writings hit a chord with folks circa ~1,500, where the same type of actions through the years were generally rejected by Christians?
The Church’s actions with Luther were not different than other people making statements or taking stands against historical Christian teaching (Council’s, corrective action, excommunication if necessary).
So as the reformation starts to flourish, what does the CC do?
Trent.
If there is doubt of the answer to ‘why Trent’ relating to the reformation, or why session seven and by extension Canon 14, one must read the first paragraph of Trent session 7: (Bold and block mine, but for context please consider in entirety)
“For the completion of the salutary doctrine on Justification, which was promulgated with the unanimous consent of the Fathers in the last preceding Session, it hath seemed suitable to treat of the most holy Sacraments of the Church, through which all true justice either begins, or being begun is increased, or being lost is repaired. With this view, in order
to destroy the errors and to extirpate the heresies, which have appeared in these our days on the subject of the said most holy sacraments,-as well those which have been revived from the heresies condemned of old by our Fathers,
as also those [heresies] newly invented, and which are exceedingly prejudicial to the purity of the Catholic Church, and to the salvation of souls,-the sacred and holy, ecumenical and general Synod of Trent, lawfully assembled in the Holy Ghost, the same legates of the Apostolic See presiding therein, adhering to the doctrine of the holy Scriptures, to the apostolic traditions, and to the consent of other councils and of the Fathers, has thought fit that these present canons be established and decreed; intending, the divine Spirit aiding, to publish later the remaining canons which are wanting for the completion of the work which It has begun.”
Reading the opening statements from 1545 also helps make it easier to understand the big picture and purpose of the canons.
So the context of the writing at Trent is in response to Luther, but expands a bit to encompass older heresies as well.
In light of this -
If I was to put Canon 14 to simple 2015 USA English, first I would consider the Church at the time would have still considered there to be 1 Christianity, so ‘Christian’ being in union with the Church. - it might read something like –
‘A Christian in communion with the Church at baptism, who doesn’t want to be in communion with the Church any longer, is not to be forced to be Christian; Christians who do not want to be in communion with the Church are not to participate in the sacraments until they go to confession and seek absolution. To emphasize, Christians who show they do not want to be in communion with the Church, are not in communion with the Church.’
Your second and third questions as combined are confusing. Obviously, I can’t say it’s wrong to let someone walk per above, and how can I think it is wrong to bar someone from that which they show they do not want anyway?
So I guess the question from all of this - Is it a sin to reject the Church after baptism? Considering the details above, Trent was saying ‘yes’ – Why? Probably has something to do with rejecting God in rejecting His teachings.
Is this teaching of ‘Sin if rejecting the Church’ new or has it ever changed or is it historical?
I think we would conclude after research, it is historical, back to Adam and Eve with the first rejection of God’s teaching.
Which brings us back to –
Trent was a response to the reformation with the goal of re-emphasizing the CC’s unchanged teachings.
Note: This is saying nothing related to how the Church had to shift it’s mindset of how to relate to non-communion Christians after the reformation was NOT another repeat of earlier attempts at heresy, which did not stick. I think we see this most recently in joint Catholic-Lutheran statements, etc… (Having joint statements does not mean historical teaching changes)
Again, sorry it took so long to respond.
Take care,
Mike