Todd Easton;2032660:
An early indirect reference to the purity of the Virgin Mary can be found in the writings of St. Irenaeus of Lyons about A.D. 189.
"and the Son of God the Son of man (the pure One
**opening purely that pure womb **
which regenerates men unto God, and which He Himself made pure); (
Against Heresies, book 4, chap. 33, paragraph 11.)
This “early indirect reference to the purity of the Virgin Mary” seems to say that our Lord Jesus “Himself made pure” Mary’s womb. This would be very consistent with Jesus’ earthly life wherein he had no apprehension of contracting leprosy by touch (Matthew 8:3) or ceremonial uncleanness from touching the dead (Mark 5:41). It is what comes out of man that makes us unclean, not what goes into us. The idea that Mary had to be immaculate so as not to spiritually taint Jesus stands contrary to these teachings he gave us.
With all due respect, this word from Irenaeus seems to me to substantiate the idea that Jesus, by virtue of his presence in her womb, made the Blessed Virgin pure, rather than make the case for modern Marian doctrine.
Padreden
The Catholic Church does not teach that Mary had to be immaculate of necessity but only that it was fitting that she be, just as the tablets of the Old Covenant could have been carried in any old wooden box but it was fitting that the wooden box they were carried in was covered inside and out with gold. St. Irenaeus says that the Son of God made Mary’s womb pure, and by extention her whole being, but he does not say when this purification took place. That the Son of God made Mary pure at her conception, as Catholic believe, is not in any way ruled out by the statement of St. Irenaeus.
This is similar to when the angel Gabriel addressed Mary as
kecharitomene, highly favored one. (Luke 1:28) There is no indication when Mary was highly favored, only that it happened in the past. Thus, the angel’s statement does not in any why rule out the Catholic belief that Mary was highly favored at the moment of her conception.