"The Catholic Church Just Destroyed Itself with Logic"

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It is common, in my world, to come across this level of error and ill informed education in atheists regarding Catholic doctrine.
It’s equally common in my world to engage with posters who can’t be bothered to watch movies before offering a review. The basic facts, sans mockery, have been laid out by the Diocese, and are in agreement with Mehta’s video.
Benji Franklin, whoever he is …
Benjamin Franklin was one of the founding fathers of the United States.
 
Yeah, so this dude is astonishingly accurate about the situation as it is, and inaccurate about a few unimportant details
No. He’s quite inaccurate about many things – especially, the way he construes the situation and how he interprets the response of the Archdiocese!

And yeah… his smarminess was off-putting from the very beginning. I mean, his smirking from the very start of the video had me eye-rolling, and his characterization of the Inquisition and the CDF and the “superstitious” Catholic Church was killing me… till I realized that he was seriously misinterpreting the situation.

At that point, I was all "oh – another atheist who knows the Catholic Church better than the Church herself does? Thank goodness he’s here to save us from ourselves!!! "
:roll_eyes:
I’m only eight replies into the thread, so I’m not gonna start enumerating his mistakes. But, if I get to the end of the thread and find out that others haven’t already done so, I’ll list his errors and misunderstandings.
I am not sure exactly what you were expecting theologically, but he is loads more accurate than most atheists to be encountered on YouTube.
I’m expecting that, if he’s gonna make claims, that he’s accurate. Or that he’s researched sufficiently. Or that he can properly read and interpret what the CDF and Archdiocese has written. By my count, it’s already three strikes on those points, so… you’re out, batter!
and now they’re all going to hell!
That’s Mehta’s claim. And it’s inaccurate.
The RC church says only a validly-ordained priest can give Last Rites (which includes a deathbed confession of mortal sins)
No, it doesn’t “include a deathbed confession of mortal sins.” It can also include recourse to the sacrament of reconciliation, but normally does not. (In fact, in my experience working in my parish, people only call for anointing when their loved one is already very near death. It’s distressing that people misunderstand the sacrament so much.)
The RC church says only a validly-ordained priest can absolve mortal sins in the confessional, but if there was really no absolution because the “priest” wasn’t ordained, again the diocese claimed “We’re sure God understood; there’s an exception here also.”
No. And, to tell the truth, even if that confession was invalid, any subsequent confession suffices, so there’s no real net effect on the person.
The basic facts, sans mockery, have been laid out by the Diocese, and are in agreement with Mehta’s video.
Not the conclusions that Mehta comes to, however, and that’s where his video goes off the rails in terms of its believability.
 
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Here’s where I think you’re wrong.
Please tell me what my error was and I’d be glad to read it.
Do you all believe water baptism is absolutely necessary (administered by an Orthodox person only), etc. and those who have not received it are definitively excluded?
EOs haven’t taught that those who are unbaptized are definitively excluded from salvation, but at any rate, I don’t want to change the subject to Orthodox beliefs here since it’s a Catholicism-based thread.
He has not established them as barriers to salvation, so that one who is seeking them, but is impeded through no fault of his own, is therefore necessarily deprived of benefits God intended for him.
Could you please provide a Catechism verse to that effect - that someone who does not get absolved of mortal sins through no fault of their own is definitively not deprived of the intended absolution?
Your essential point of confusion is this:
The rules don’t exist for themselves as their purpose, point, meaning, or ultimate good. The “teleos” of the rules is not … the rules. Start with that correct assumption and the issue might make more sense.
Could you please provide some citation to back up your claim - preferably from the Catechism? Right now I just see this:

1456: Confession to a priest is an essential part of the sacrament of Penance: "All mortal sins of which penitents after a diligent self-examination are conscious must be recounted by them in confession
I find an important point to consider is that the Church knows that ultimately God knows where/who the fault and genuineness is found, yet it is still good to do our best to reconcile.
The RC church also says that a layman can’t absolve, but if you can cite Catholic teaching to support your claim I’d be happy to read it.
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ReaderT:
The RC church says only a validly-ordained priest can give Last Rites (which includes a deathbed confession of mortal sins)
No, it doesn’t “include a deathbed confession of mortal sins.” It can also include recourse to the sacrament of reconciliation, but normally does not
Catholic Answers says: “That phrase [Last Rites] refers to the three sacraments—confession, anointing of the sick, and final Holy Communion” - See below:

 
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Catholic Answers says: “That phrase [Last Rites] refers to the three sacraments— confession , anointing of the sick, and final Holy Communion” - See below:
From the citation you provided:
If possible, a seriously ill person should do all he can to go to sacramental confession first. Reception of the other sacraments doesn’t necessarily depend on sacramental confession,
Sacramental confession isn’t a necessary part of the visit that’s normally called “last rites” (which isn’t, as it turns out, a moniker for a ‘sacrament’, per se, but a practice which may include multiple sacraments).

In fact, it’s quite common that the person is unconscious, so… no reception of the Eucharist, either. Just an anointing (which, if you pause to think about it, isn’t about ‘impending death’ at all – it’s about healing).

So, you can call it “Last Rites”, but that doesn’t imply that sacramental confession or the distribution of communion as viaticum has occurred. It’s kinda a ‘placeholder’ description.
 
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ReaderT:
The RC church says only a validly-ordained priest can absolve mortal sins in the confessional, but if there was really no absolution because the “priest” wasn’t ordained, again the diocese claimed “We’re sure God understood; there’s an exception here also.”
No. And, to tell the truth, even if that confession was invalid, any subsequent confession suffices, so there’s no real net effect on the person.
Interesting - I never heard that before. Could you please provide a source that says “A subsequent confession will cover previously unabsolved mortal sins, even if the penitent does not say them.
 
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It’s equally common in my world to engage with posters who can’t be bothered to watch movies before offering a review. The basic facts, sans mockery, have been laid out by the Diocese, and are in agreement with Mehta’s video
By my world, I dont mean online, I am talking real people with real conversations face to face. People I know and love. Their most common errors in understanding that lead them prey to secular gossip include the homosexual issue and the sin/ forgiveness issues. Usually simple conversations with ’ well thats not correct, this is actually what the Church believes’ clears such issues up.

Which movie are you referring to? the youtube posted? Who is not bothering to watch it and yet still commenting?
Is there a direct statement from the archdiocese regarding the man’s video? If there is please link it.

The diocese has laid out no basic facts about the video linked in this thread.
Benjamin Franklin was one of the founding fathers of the United States.
That still does not make him an excellent tactician or horseman, re that poem. We could discuss the quality of nails and blacksmithing too, But these are irrelevant to this thread and off topic.
I am not American, as I repeatedly say in posts. Mainly because most people here are American. Then if cultural context is not understood ( aka your founding father post) its reasons are clear.

If an atheist wants a real conversation about baptism, what is does for a Catholic, the other sacraments, and the reason we vs I was a great big issue, then that atheist should listen and engage on a level where informed information is engaged in critical thinking, rather then uninformed gossip from another atheist.

If an atheist wants to get past the dramatic youtube gossip and know what and why words matter in sacramental rites in the Catholic church, then listening first is a good skill to employ.
There is nothing but arguments otherwise.
 
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Interesting - I never heard that before. Could you please provide a source that says “A subsequent confession will cover previously unabsolved mortal sins, even if the penitent does not say them.
I have not gotten back to your reply to me reader T, not sure which thread its on, and would like to learn a little about the Russian Orthodox Church first. We do both share St Serguis I know.
 
The RC church says only a validly-ordained priest can give Last Rites (which includes a deathbed confession of mortal sins), but if the “priest” turns out not to have been validly ordained - and therefore an actual absolution could not have been given - you couldn’t definitively declare the person was free of mortal sins, and if they’re not they’d be in hell.
I have never heard of an invalid ordination and to my recollection I have never met anyone who has. Here is a short article related to this notion:


For the sake of this discussion, even if such a thing such as you described happened and one was not actually absolved of his/her sins, CCC 1497 speaks of the ordinary means of reconciliation. There is also this:

 
God is an intelligent being, not a vending machine.

We are bound to observe the sacraments. God is not bound to act only according to them.

The sacraments actually do things and are beneficial; we would be fools to avoid them deliberately.

But if someone in all good conscience repents of their sins and confesses to someone they have every reason to believe is a priest (because even the priest believes it), it seems unlikely given what we know of God that He would allow that person to remain in their sins, given that it’s His power that’s doing the absolving in either case.

The reason we don’t just say “Get rid of all the procedures, then, if there can be exceptions” is that the sacraments exist so that we can experience something with our senses that tells us the underlying spiritual effect has taken place. While God can work outside the sacraments, we don’t usually get the visible guarantee that He has done so, and so the sacraments are still valuable for us even if they are optional for Him.
 
I have never heard of an invalid ordination and to my recollection I have never met anyone who has.
Welcome to this thread, where the topic is two recent invalid priestly ordinations.

And actually, if you think about it, invalid ordination attempts are quite common when you factor in women. So yes, there are plenty of invalidly-ordained “priests” running around out there now!
 
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it seems unlikely given what we know of God that He would allow that person to remain in their sins,
But again, no guarantee. And if all we can say is “It seems unlikely that Grandma will be tormented for all eternity” (but it’s not a 0% chance, and given what the Catechism says about mortal sins, there’s reason to worry), that is of course very far from comforting.
For the sake of this discussion, even if such a thing such as you described happened and one was not actually absolved of his/her sins, CCC 1497 speaks of the ordinary means of reconciliation. There is also this:
Yes, but having your sins absolved outside of confession requires a perfect act of contrition. Imperfect contrition — sorrow for one’s sins based upon fear of the punishment of Hell— is all that you say is needed for a priest to absolve you in the confessional, and while I’m sure some people reach the state of perfect contrition, not everyone who goes to confession does (they don’t need to, to be absolved) and so there’s many whose sins would not have been absolved this way when they went to the non-priest. Also, according to Catechism 1452 even a person with perfect contrition “obtains forgiveness of mortal sins if it includes the firm resolution to have recourse to sacramental confession as soon as possible” which is not the case here - the people believed they’d already confessed.

So I see nothing in the Catechism to say these people aren’t still in mortal sin.
 
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I feel like he missed the mark regarding marriages; I believe the diocese will be investigating the circumstances of the marriages, because most of them could be valid, given two witnesses and proper procedures were observed; marriage doesn’t require a priest, just proper Catholic form.
The baptisms of Fr. Hood were alright. Other sacraments were not valid because matter, form, and faculties are needed for confession, confirmation, marriage, and celebration of Mass (and faculties for Mass more than once in a day). There is a canon for marriage case where the minister “cannot be present or approached without grave inconvenience” persisting for a period of more than a month or in the danger of death. (CIC 1116)
 
Welcome to this thread, where the topic is two recent invalid priestly ordinations.

And actually, if you think about it, invalid ordination attempts are quite common when you factor in women. So yes, there are plenty of invalidly-ordained “priests” running around out there now!
https://www.bing.com/videos/search?...77101EA5EB66E35FCE98771&view=detail&FORM=VIRE

https://www.bing.com/videos/search?...8AB8BD5FCD16A9E2802F8AB&view=detail&FORM=VIRE

Do you think it likely that women attempting ordination would actually be ordained?
I have difficulty believing that “there are plenty of invalidly-ordained “priests” running around”, please provide some documentation.
 
Could you please provide a Catechism verse to that effect - that someone who does not get absolved of mortal sins through no fault of their own is definitively not deprived of the intended absolution?
1452 When it arises from a love by which God is loved above all else, contrition is called “perfect” (contrition of charity). Such contrition remits venial sins; it also obtains forgiveness of mortal sins if it includes the firm resolution to have recourse to sacramental confession as soon as possible.51

51 Cf. Council of Trent (1551): DS 1677
As an FYI, the only reason I brought up the EO, is that your post (at least the way it read to me, I could be wrong) seemed to treat the issue as a peculiar RC one, and one that was potentially negative. That was surprising to me come coming from an EO person.
 
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@Genesis315 I actually cited that exact Catechism passage above but showed it does not help us with the problems here:
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ReaderT:
having your sins absolved outside of confession requires a perfect act of contrition. Imperfect contrition — sorrow for one’s sins based upon fear of the punishment of Hell— is all that you say is needed for a priest to absolve you in the confessional, and while I’m sure some people reach the state of perfect contrition, not everyone who goes to confession does (they don’t need to, to be absolved) and so there’s many whose sins would not have been absolved this way when they went to the non-priest. Also, according to Catechism 1452 even a person with perfect contrition “obtains forgiveness of mortal sins if it includes the firm resolution to have recourse to sacramental confession as soon as possible ” which is not the case here - the people believed they’d already confessed.

So I see nothing in the Catechism to say these people aren’t still in mortal sin.
 
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As we know from previous posts, CCC 1452 describes perfect contrition. I think CCC 1861 would be well to bear in mind regarding this topic in general.

1861 Mortal sin is a radical possibility of human freedom, as is love itself. It results in the loss of charity and the privation of sanctifying grace, that is, of the state of grace. If it is not redeemed by repentance and God’s forgiveness, it causes exclusion from Christ’s kingdom and the eternal death of hell, for our freedom has the power to make choices for ever, with no turning back. However, although we can judge that an act is in itself a grave offense, we must entrust judgment of persons to the justice and mercy of God.
 
bob4 that paints a bleak and not too optimistic picture also. If these folks were in mortal sin which “results in the loss of charity and the privation of sanctifying grace … [and] exclusion from Christ’s kingdom and the eternal death of hell”, then it’s not looking too good for them. Of course we can “entrust them to the justice and mercy of God,” but still, no assurance they’re not in eternal torment and lots of reasons to worry (they died in mortal sin).
 
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If it is not redeemed by repentance and God’s forgiveness,
You are overlooking this sentence. There is perfect contrition which the catechism defines as “when contrition arises from a love by which God is loved above all else.” No one but God can judge whether the person’s contrition was perfect or imperfect. In the circumstances being discussed in this thread, the penitents here have confessed but through no fault of their own they have not received sacramental absolution. At the earliest opportunity they should receive the Sacrament of Penance. If they die before they can do so then, as the last line of CCC 1861 states, we must entrust judgment of persons to the justice and mercy of God. Peace be with you.
 
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If it is not redeemed by repentance and God’s forgiveness,
You are overlooking this sentence.
Yes, bob - “if”. Well, the Catechism tells us how we can know if mortal sins have definitively been forgiven, and neither of the ways applies here:
  • Through imperfect contrition and confession.
  • Through perfect contrition with “the firm resolution to have recourse to sacramental confession as soon as possible” (which they did not have).
No one but God can judge whether the person’s contrition was perfect or imperfect.
Even if it was perfect they’re not off the hook, because perfect contrition only obtains forgiveness if it includes that firm resolution to confess these sins later (CCC 1452).
If they die before they can do so then, as the last line of CCC 1861 states, we must entrust judgment of persons to the justice and mercy of God. Peace be with you.
So, like I’ve been saying throughout this whole thread: no guarantee - no assurance - that they escaped, and plenty of reason to worry, because they definitively died with unconfessed mortal sin. Whatever the chance may be that they’re in hell, we know one thing: the Catechism doesn’t say it’s 0%. So what odds are you comfortable with: 5% (1 in 20)? 10% chance they’re in hell?
 
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Interesting - I never heard that before. Could you please provide a source that says “A subsequent confession will cover previously unabsolved mortal sins, even if the penitent does not say them.
I don’t think that I wrote what you placed in italics, no?

Nevertheless, I think you could make a case for it. If you fail to confess sins for a reason other than an obstinate refusal to confess them, then your confession is not invalid – in other words, it is valid absolution and forgiveness!

In this case, having already confessed sins in what was unknown to the penitent to be a confession without a valid absolution, the penitent would approach subsequent confessions without the perceived need to re-state their grave sins from the past. And those subsequent absolutions would be valid. QED.
But again, no guarantee.
Except that, what you’re saying is “through no fault of her own, Grandma didn’t successfully complete the process of absolution of her sins.” That’s similar to a situation in which a person dies on the way to the confessional. The Church doesn’t say that God exclaims “Gotcha!” and condemns them to hell because they weren’t able to complete the action they intended to take. Same deal here.
Also, according to Catechism 1452 even a person with perfect contrition “obtains forgiveness of mortal sins if it includes the firm resolution to have recourse to sacramental confession as soon as possible ” which is not the case here - the people believed they’d already confessed.
That’s a nice try, but it doesn’t hold up. You’re assuming that these folks never went to confession again. That’s a rather tenuous assumption.
Through perfect contrition with “the firm resolution to have recourse to sacramental confession as soon as possible” (which they did not have).
Again, you’re building a straw man argument without evidence.
 
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