P
pr_catholic
Guest
Hi, I was hoping someone that know’s our ecclesiastical history could tell me if the Church has ever issued it’s stance regarding the law of Moses has the jews put it into practice. I know about the council of jerusalem deciding about gentiles not having to submit to the law in order to be baptised. As far as I know the Church through out it’s history has never said that the law is abolished, simply that it did not saved unlike faith in Jesus sacrifice at the cross. The law according to the Cathecism & St. Paul for that matter was a prefigurement of Christ.
Still, if the council of jerusalem is to be understood and interpreted correctly then baptised jews were/are free to hold fast to their traditions ala the hebrew catholics. I believe that the problem or critice is that the gentiles or non-jews (like myself) don’t need to practice the laws found in the Torah (and, since we are the mayority right now…). Did I got it all right, is something missing or something I said that was wrong on this issue?
Still, if the council of jerusalem is to be understood and interpreted correctly then baptised jews were/are free to hold fast to their traditions ala the hebrew catholics. I believe that the problem or critice is that the gentiles or non-jews (like myself) don’t need to practice the laws found in the Torah (and, since we are the mayority right now…). Did I got it all right, is something missing or something I said that was wrong on this issue?