S
Sarah_Jane
Guest
For me, it’s the oppositeI’ve read them and find Webster’s case much stronger.
For me, it’s the oppositeI’ve read them and find Webster’s case much stronger.
Sooo…you believe that the early Church was Episcopalian??Obviously, Ignatious was simply describing that the Church universal was an episcopal church - as in led by bishops, not ONE bishop. It does coin the term “Catholic” as in “universal” alright, but since it has no reference to a papacy-led Church, sounds like it really has nothing to do with proving that the “Catholic Church” as we know it today, led by a pope, was in effect back then.
David
I am not really sure what you are talking about but my bible saysSorry, but that’s not what Jesus did in Matt 16:18.
Maybe your bible reads something like this :18 “And I tell you that you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the gates of Hades will not overcome it.
Lets hope not!18 “And I tell you that you are Peter, but on the Bible, not you, I will build my church, and the gates of Hades will overcome it almost immediately, and the truth will be lost until the Reformation.
Thank God they got it up and running in time to decide the NT Books at the End of the 4th century…Nick o’ time I say.In the non-Catholic religions forum, Ric made the following post:
No, Jesus started His Church, not the Roman Catholic church (which started in the 4th century). :tiphat:
Here is the link: forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=62575
This is one of my favorite OXYMORONS.An argument can be made that scripture infers that Peter was first among equals, but no more.
David
Peace be with you!And I would refer you to *The Matthew 16 Controversy: Peter and the Rock *and *The Church of Rome at the Bar of History, *both authored by William Webster.
Peter also ordained bishops in other churches. That’s because it’s an episcopate and bishops lead the Church. How does that prove a papacy?
David
Man you sure can twist the story to suit your own ends… The history is there as well as Acts of the Apostles. Sure is strange that no one held this opinion prior to 1517.Based on that kind of logic, then Paul was the first Pope, not Peter. Paul preceded Peter and actually founded the Church in Rome, not Peter. Paul was martyred and buried there as well. And Paul was known as the Apostle to the Gentiles and Peter was the Apostles to the Jews, since Rome was a Gentile city, Paul must be it’s Apostle. See where using that kind of logic can get you?
Huh? Sorry, but no one has ever claimed “infallibility” is stated in scripture nor is “prime” stated. An argument can be made that scripture infers that Peter was first among equals, but no more.
David
It doesn’t matter what facts show you David you’ve got your mind all made up and it fits the doctrines that you like.Yep, that certainly proves it . . . oh, but wait, there was a bishop over each of the Churches and this says nothing of the bishop of Rome or a pope. Obviously, Ignatious was simply describing that the Church universal was an episcopal church - as in led by bishops, not ONE bishop. It does coin the term “Catholic” as in “universal” alright, but since it has no reference to a papacy-led Church, sounds like it really has nothing to do with proving that the “Catholic Church” as we know it today, led by a pope, was in effect back then.
David
Sigh. Not again. OK, Ric - where is the Church that Jesus started? Where can we find that Church today? Is it the Evangelical Christian Church (whatever that is)? Or did Our Lord’s Church cease to exist, despite His promise that his Church would prevail forever?No, Jesus started His Church, not the Roman Catholic church (which started in the 4th century)
Very funny. I like that.Sooo…you believe that the early Church was Episcopalian??
Bwahahahaha![]()
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Those bishops were in communion with one another and they were certainly in communion with the Bishop of Rome. The universal Church is the Church of all the bishops, teaching the one faith.Yep, that certainly proves it . . . oh, but wait, there was a bishop over each of the Churches and this says nothing of the bishop of Rome or a pope. Obviously, Ignatious was simply describing that the Church universal was an episcopal church - as in led by bishops, not ONE bishop. It does coin the term “Catholic” as in “universal” alright, but since it has no reference to a papacy-led Church, sounds like it really has nothing to do with proving that the “Catholic Church” as we know it today, led by a pope, was in effect back then.
David
Christianity became the state religion of the Roman Empire in the 4th century. Furthermore, as there already were different views around, what Christianity means, Christianity was defined at the council of Nicäa to stop those debates. What was decided there is the basis of Protestant belief too, afaik (I am thinking of the Trinity).In the non-Catholic religions forum, Ric made the following post:
No, Jesus started His Church, not the Roman Catholic church (which started in the 4th century). :tiphat:
Here is the link: forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=62575
At last, some honesty. That’s exactly the attitude I’ve been hoping to encounter, but feared was completely lost. Most of the time, I get this revisionist attempt to portray the papacy as existing from the very beginning, and it’s just not historically accurate. You’re right, it did develop over time. That’s all I’ve been fighting, which is an attempt to restore the concept of what really happened and how it happened.Those bishops were in communion with one another and they were certainly in communion with the Bishop of Rome. The universal Church is the Church of all the bishops, teaching the one faith.
If Peter is not in your house of bishops, you are missing the centerpiece. *Super hanc petram aedificabo ecclesiam meam. *
To imagine that a bishop’s authority in his own diocese somehow gave him authority to break communion with the rest of the Church – which is the upshot of what you claim – is absurd.
While the developed papacy as we know it today took some time to emerge, and arose out of evident necessity, there was certainly no doubt in the early Church that without Peter, the Church is incomplete. Ubi Petrus, ibi Ecclesia.
But it is true, and in more than vestigial form. Certainly the primacy of the Roman see was recognized before the year 200 A.D., as indicated in the writings of Irenaeus and others, and as has been noted in this thread. That’s a pretty early formulation. Pope St. Victor, who died in the year 198, makes an explicit assertion of the primacy of the Roman see when settling the quartodeciman conflict.At last, some honesty. That’s exactly the attitude I’ve been hoping to encounter, but feared was completely lost. Most of the time, I get this revisionist attempt to portray the papacy as existing from the very beginning, and it’s just not historically accurate. You’re right, it did develop over time. That’s all I’ve been fighting, which is an attempt to restore the concept of what really happened and how it happened.
I can peacefully disagree with Catholics over whether or not the papacy developed as the Lord intended as compared to the way the Orthodox interpreted it (my preferred interpretation). Such as disagreement can be posted and left there without the back and forth postings. But when I see inaccurate renderings of history pretending that the authority of the papacy existed from the beginning, that gets my dander up cause it’s just not true.
David
He is completely mistaken. St. Ignatius of Antioch who was born in 50 A.D. was taught by the Apostles John and Peter. He was also the first martyr to be fed to the lions in the Coliseum. He said “Wherever the Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church.” There are also many, many other records of the Catholic Church from the first century onward.In the non-Catholic religions forum, Ric made the following post:
No, Jesus started His Church, not the Roman Catholic church (which started in the 4th century). :tiphat:
Here is the link: forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=62575