The Catholic Interpretation

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How does the Church view these verses and what does she say they mean?

Mt 16:28; Mk 8:39; Lk 9:27; and Jn 21:21-23 . . . basically any verse that says people won’t die until Christ comes again, thank you for your help!
 
How does the Church view these verses and what does she say they mean?

Mt 16:28; Mk 8:39; Lk 9:27; and Jn 21:21-23 . . . basically any verse that says people won’t die until Christ comes again, thank you for your help!
Here are the verses you site.
Mt 16:28
I tell you the truth, some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom."

Mk 8:39
No such verse

Lk 9:27
I tell you the truth, some who are standing here will not taste death before they see the kingdom of God."

Jn 21:21-23
21 So Peter seeing him said to Jesus, “Lord, and what about this man?” 22 Jesus said to him, “If I want him to remain until I come, what is that to you? You follow Me!” 23 Therefore this saying went out among the brethren that that disciple would not die; yet Jesus did not say to him that he would not die, but only, “If I want him to remain until I come, what is that to you?”

Let me give you two more to ponder.
John 11:25-26
25 Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life; he who believes in Me will live even if he dies, 26 and everyone who lives and believes in Me will never die. Do you believe this?”

My 22:32
‘I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’ ? He is not the God of the dead but of the living."

If those who “die” (leave this earth) in God’s grace, continue to live then each of the verses you quote make sense.

As for the specific verse in John that you site, note that Christ says IF I want him to remain…. He does not say If I want him to live

Hope this helps.

Peace
James
 
Another possible meaning is that the Kingdom is inaugurated at the Resurrection, which would mean that in fact MOST of those who heard Jesus speak were still living to see the Kingdom. (This also correlates with His comment at the Last Supper that He would not drink the fruit of the vine again until He drank it in the Kingdom, which is one reason He refused the drugged vinegar on the Cross).

As with most verses/passages of Scripture, the Church does NOT define what these mean.
 
How does the Church view these verses and what does she say they mean?

Mt 16:28; Mk 8:39; Lk 9:27; and Jn 21:21-23 . . . basically any verse that says people won’t die until Christ comes again, thank you for your help!
Mt 16:28 Truly, I say to you, there are some standing here who will not taste death before they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.

What happens right after this? The Transfiguration.

Mt. 17 1-3 And after six days Jesus took with him Peter and James and John his brother ("the some standing here from Mat 16:28), and led them up a high mountain apart. And he was transfigured before them, and his face shone like the sun, and his garments because white as light. And behold, there appeared to them Moses and Elijah, talking with him.
 
Here are the verses you site.
Mk 8:39
No such verse
Hmmm, this may be a difference in translation . . . the Douay - Rheims has this:

Mark 8:39
And he said to them: Amen I say to you, that there are some of them that stand here, who shall not taste death, till they see the kingdom of God coming in power.

The Revised Standard Version - Catholic Edition has this verse as Mk 9:1, sorry for the confusion!!!
As for the specific verse in John that you site, note that Christ says IF I want him to remain…. He does not say If I want him to live
Wouldn’t the fact that Christ wants him to remain imply that he would want him to stay on earth? In all honesty, I’m looking for a way to refute the Mormon belief that the Apostle John is still walking around today evangelizing people. Just to beat people to the punch, the LDS church is not getting to me in any way, shape, or form. I do not believe John is still walking around today. Mormons will frequently site this passage from John and I’d like to have some kind of rebuttal in my mind . . . also, is there any Church Father that writes specifically that John did die? Even if it is a simple reference like “he went to Ephesus and died there. . . .” I tried looking but couldn’t find any.
Another possible meaning is that the Kingdom is inaugurated at the Resurrection, which would mean that in fact MOST of those who heard Jesus speak were still living to see the Kingdom. (This also correlates with His comment at the Last Supper that He would not drink the fruit of the vine again until He drank it in the Kingdom, which is one reason He refused the drugged vinegar on the Cross).

As with most verses/passages of Scripture, the Church does NOT define what these mean.
This is a neat interpretation, thanks! I’m just wondering how that fits with verses like Mt 16:28 and Mt 25:31-46 that seem to imply that Christ’s kingdom is established at His Second Coming?
What happens right after this? The Transfiguration.

Mt. 17 1-3 And after six days Jesus took with him Peter and James and John his brother ("the some standing here from Mat 16:28), and led them up a high mountain apart. And he was transfigured before them, and his face shone like the sun, and his garments because white as light. And behold, there appeared to them Moses and Elijah, talking with him.
Are Moses and Elijah God’s Kingdom?
 
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