T
thunderbolt94
Guest
Hello everyone,
I was recently studying more about the doctrine of original sin, and I’ve been wanting to understand how the concept (as Catholics believe it) is different from the Jewish and Islamic understanding of original sin is. I understand that in Judaism the concept of original sin (they do not believe in the doctrine of original sin). In relation to the Fall, Wikipedia states the following:
“Judaism and Islam interpret the account of the fall as being simply historical, Adam and Eve’s disobedience would have already been known to God even before he created them, thus draw no particular theological implications for human nature.[citation needed] That is, man’s setting, condition, and environment have in essence changed - but not man himself. Quite simply, because of Adam’s actions, he and his wife were removed from the garden, forced to work, suffer pain in childbirth, and die. However, even after expelling them from the garden, God provided that people who honor God and follow God’s laws would be rewarded, while those who acted wrongly would be punished.”
My question is this: If it is the case that Christianity is the only monotheistic religion that believes in the Fall and Original Sin, then how could Christianity (Catholicism particularly) be a “continuation” of Judaism, if Judaism itself does not believe in the concept? Did we simply add more theology when we accept the OT as canon? Or does that mean we are seeing it through the eyes of Christ?
If anyone can help me here, I would greatly appreciate it. God Bless.
I was recently studying more about the doctrine of original sin, and I’ve been wanting to understand how the concept (as Catholics believe it) is different from the Jewish and Islamic understanding of original sin is. I understand that in Judaism the concept of original sin (they do not believe in the doctrine of original sin). In relation to the Fall, Wikipedia states the following:
“Judaism and Islam interpret the account of the fall as being simply historical, Adam and Eve’s disobedience would have already been known to God even before he created them, thus draw no particular theological implications for human nature.[citation needed] That is, man’s setting, condition, and environment have in essence changed - but not man himself. Quite simply, because of Adam’s actions, he and his wife were removed from the garden, forced to work, suffer pain in childbirth, and die. However, even after expelling them from the garden, God provided that people who honor God and follow God’s laws would be rewarded, while those who acted wrongly would be punished.”
My question is this: If it is the case that Christianity is the only monotheistic religion that believes in the Fall and Original Sin, then how could Christianity (Catholicism particularly) be a “continuation” of Judaism, if Judaism itself does not believe in the concept? Did we simply add more theology when we accept the OT as canon? Or does that mean we are seeing it through the eyes of Christ?
If anyone can help me here, I would greatly appreciate it. God Bless.