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6glargento
Guest
I am having a discussion with a calvinist over the council of orange. He believes that the council of orange teaches calvinism and that the RCC has since abandoned this teaching.
he quotes
he says
“The council strictly says that the gift of grace is NOT based on any obedience or humbleness in man. This council does not, anywhere, say man can reject grace, neitehr does the bible for that matter. This council took an Augustinian predestinarian stance, which the Roman Church does not hold now.”
I am trying to explain to him that God’s grace is sufficient for salvation but that man needs to accept his grace. but he resonds that one cannot hold that position and claim to believe in sola gratia because, according to him, it would be “half God and half man” rather than 100% God.
What would be a good argument to respond?
he quotes
he claims that this teaches that God has predetermined everything and that man does not have to cooperate with God’s grace.CANON 6. If anyone says that God has mercy upon us when, apart from his grace, we believe, will, desire, strive, labor, pray, watch, study, seek, ask, or knock, but does not confess that it is by the infusion and inspiration of the Holy Spirit within us that we have the faith, the will, or the strength to do all these things as we ought; or if anyone makes the assistance of grace depend on the humility or obedience of man and does not agree that it is a gift of grace itself that we are obedient and humble, he contradicts the Apostle who says, “What have you that you did not receive?” (1 Cor. 4:7), and, “But by the grace of God I am what I am” (1 Cor. 15:10).
Not only is it Grace that makes us able, but it is also grace that causes our will and strength to do that which we ought. God’s grace does not merely remove chains and free our will, it causes good to happen. It so affects our being, our will, our strength so that we choose to do what we ought.
he says
“The council strictly says that the gift of grace is NOT based on any obedience or humbleness in man. This council does not, anywhere, say man can reject grace, neitehr does the bible for that matter. This council took an Augustinian predestinarian stance, which the Roman Church does not hold now.”
I am trying to explain to him that God’s grace is sufficient for salvation but that man needs to accept his grace. but he resonds that one cannot hold that position and claim to believe in sola gratia because, according to him, it would be “half God and half man” rather than 100% God.
What would be a good argument to respond?