J
japhy
Guest
I suppose so. I’d put it this way:The reason I said what I did is because I’m sincerely curious how closely you have read the documents of Vatican II. You know about collegiality, and you classify the disobedience of bishops today as a product of collegiality, but you don’t provide an explanation against the Council’s definition and explanation of it. I guess I’m curious how much you know of the Church’s “theory” is in this matter. Does the “theory” necessitate the bad “practice”?
The documents of Vatican II say X about topic Z, but after the Council, people (including bishops) do Y about Z instead. Is this the fault of Vatican II? Of the documents? Of the very topic Z?