The Early Church: If They Weren't Catholic, What Were They?

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You missed the “protestant verses” of John 6! 🙂
Does the smile mean you’re joking? I hope so because there are no protestant verses anywhere in the NT. There is the Word of God on the one hand and there are protestant interpretations, justifications, excuses and inventions on the other, but there are no protestant verses.🙂
 
anna, you have nothing to worry about. your too sweet to end up in hell. :console: the Blessed Mother wouldnt allow it. peace 🙂
Peace to you, too brother. Please know there are thousands of us praying daily for your safety and your safe return.
 
The early Church was neither a unified institution nor was it Catholic in the modern sense of the word. Christianity was a loose conglomoration of various sects (Gnosticism being among the first). The councils were attempts at unification of these sects and attempts to, essentially, define Christianity. Catholicism is a product of this journey but no one can say with any semblance of intellectual honesty that the Catholic Church existed before Catholic theology and doctrine had even been defined let alone established. Whether or not you want to define these early sects as Protestant is up to you.
Ah, Mr. Bonaparte, if I may side-step the glaring issue of your asserting that Gnosticism was a part of the loose conglomeration of Christianity for a moment and thrust right at the heart of the issue, given that, as you have stated, Catholicism and/or the Eastern Churches are the Christianity eventually defined by the early Church, how can one assert as valid anything else? If Christianity is true, then it has been true since 33 AD. If it isn’t one of these options, then what is it, and where has it been for the past two millennia or so? I still haven’t seen a convincing reply to this conundrum - not that I expect one from an agnostic (I find your interest in the topic to begin with surprising).
 
Funny. I went through the same public education system K-12 all the way. I never heard that wacky version of history? Sounds Glen Beckian to me. I was always taught that the Crusades were a series of wars between Islam and Christianity. We were given the facts, the battles, the results, and left to draw our own conclusions. 🤷
It could be a function of locality in space and/or time. Given that you cite California as a location, I’d expect the schools to be more… secularized there. Perhaps it’s generational, then. I’m something of a young’un. Casting even a neutral light on Christian Europe would’ve been considered too religious in the system I experienced. It wasn’t that facts were concocted, really, it’s just telling which ones were omitted. For a long time, I had no idea that Islam was so militaristic in antiquity. I had just assumed they were in the Holy Land to begin with (because that’s the picture that was painted for me by our government betters).

Gotta’ push that great white guilt…
 
Crazzeto,

I’m confused. The link you gave was on development of Doctrine in the Catholic Church.

“The History of Eucharistic Adoration, Development of Doctrine in the Catholic Church,” by John A. Hardon, S.J.

I really miss your posts. Lots of people are posting, but without sources. You gave sources for Catholic beliefs in the early Church, and I felt like I had something to work with.

Anna
Doctrine can only be defined as those tenants of faith which have been affirmed by Council or a statement, ex-cathedra by the Pope. Why did this document lable it’s self “development of doctrine”? My guess is that it was designed to answer the objections of our seperated Eastern brenthern concerning this practice. The charge most typically regards the development of doctrine (from which they’ve profited much, but now they scorn because I guess they figure it’s “developed enough”, which seems arbitrary to me).

So, you really can’t say it’s a doctrine per-se, it’s never been proclaimed as such. Rather it’s an intragral practice which is rooted firmly in the doctrine of the Church (thus Apostles). The reason why I haven’t contested this issue much (doctrine or practice) is because it is so rooted in the doctrine that I really don’t see how you could accept the doctrine with out also accepting the practice.

Either the Eucharist is the body blood and divinity of Christ or it isn’t
Either it can be reserved, or it can’t

If the above is true, then adoration is a right, proper and true practice.
 
Gotta’ push that great white guilt…
More like Gotta make the Church look bad. . . .(recollect that after the reformation much of history was influenced by the Protestant/Anglo-Saxon perspective).

Edit: I also think that the enlightened thinkers played a major role in casting the Catholic Church as the villain, i.e., it’s not for nothing that they call that time period which the Church held greatest sway, “the dark ages.”
 
Doctrine can only be defined as those tenants of faith which have been affirmed by Council or a statement, ex-cathedra by the Pope. Why did this document lable it’s self “development of doctrine”? My guess is that it was designed to answer the objections of our seperated Eastern brenthern concerning this practice. The charge most typically regards the development of doctrine (from which they’ve profited much, but now they scorn because I guess they figure it’s “developed enough”, which seems arbitrary to me).
Fr. Hardon is one of the most prolific, proficient Catholic writers in the world. Anything by him is an education in the Catholic Faith. The problem here seems to be the assumption that the two phrases in his title are connected and that the second identifies the first. That reads it the wrong way.

Eucharistic Adoration is putting oneself in the presence of Jesus in the Holy Eucharist, the real Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity of the Lord, in prayer and adoration. It is not, in itself, a doctrine.

I suggest the poster get the book and read it.
 
Manny, first of all, may God protect you in Iraq. Blessings. Secondly, there’s no need to sell me on the Real Presence with these HUGE posts, brother. I was already sold back in 1991 when I came to the Church. I still believe in the real presence, always have, and would never change my view.
The Real Presence have been interpreted in the literal sense since the birth of the Church. Jesus himself taught it. You have to read the entire chapter of John 6 and not pick the ones you think makes sense to you.

When questions of biblical interpretation are raised, it is beneficial to read in context the entire passage that is in dispute. The bread of life discourse begins in John 6:22, and the first point to address is the discussion of the heavenly bread. Jesus makes the point that as the Father sent manna from heaven for the physical nourishment of the Israelites, he has sent Jesus for the spiritual nourishment of the world. When Jesus announced this (6:41), the Jews murmured because he said that he had come down from heaven, not because he said that he was like bread. They understood his symbolic statement regarding the origin of the manna, and were scandalized by what it implied: “Is this not Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How does he now say, ‘I have come down from heaven?’” (6:42).

Beginning in verse 43, Jesus replies to these objections. At the completion of his answer (6:51), he speaks of a bread that he is yet to give. The Jews’ understand that he is now speaking in a literal sense, and so they object, “How can this man give us his flesh to eat?” So the Jews first objected because of what Jesus’ initial words meant symbolically, and now they object to what his second statement means literally. Had Jesus been speaking in a metaphorical sense here, this would be the perfect point to clarify his intentions.

Matthew 16:5–12 is one such example where Jesus’ listeners thought that he was speaking in a literal sense, and he had to correct them. In this passage, Christ was warning the disciples of the leaven of the Pharisees and Sadducees. The disciples concluded that he was speaking of the bread they had forgotten to bring for their journey. In seeing their confusion, Jesus had to reiterate that he was not speaking literally of bread.

Keeping this in mind, look how Jesus answers the Jews’ objections in John 6:53–58: “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. . . . For my flesh is food indeed, and my flesh is drink indeed.” These words would hardly quell the Jew’s fear that Jesus spoke literally. Following this, many of his disciples said, “This is a hard saying; who can listen to it?”(6:60). At this point, we witness the only place in Scripture where anyone leaves Jesus for a doctrinal reason. Had Jesus been speaking metaphorically, what would have been so hard for the disciples to accept?

One last passage worth considering is John 10:9, where Jesus says, “I am the door.” Some say that this is the sense in which Jesus’ words in John 6 should be taken. However, no one understood Jesus to be speaking literally when he said that he was a door. The narrative does not continue, “And his disciples murmured about this, saying, ‘How can he be a door? Where are his hinges? We do not see a doorknob.’ Jesus answered them, ‘Amen, Amen, I say to you, I am a door, and my chest is real wood, and my hips are real hinges.’” This is absurd, but it illustrates how shocking Jesus’ words were when he said that his flesh was real food and his blood real drink.

Continue…
 
It really depends on where you go to school. A lot of folks like to paint the public system with a broad brush and demonize it as reverse-prosletyzing the new world order of atheist socialism with no soul. I think that’s pretty true in many of the universities/colleges. Maybe that’s the way it is in the Bay Area or L.A. Hard telling because I don’t live there. But in the California “curriculum” which you can view online if you’re interested, it’s pretty broad and fair IMO. In sixth grade I am required to teach “early man” which presents the different theories of evolution, Judaism, Buddhism, Hinduism, Christianity (which includes Polycarp, Paul, the Pope, Catholicism, etc.), polytheism in the ancient world vs. monotheism, etc. We study religion and our book is VERY friendly and optimistic about each religion and view. The book we use, harcourt brace, is neutral and just tells what each religion believed/believes and how it impacted history. We even do our district writing assessment at sixth grade on “The Prodigal Son” and the kids write about Christ and the impact of his parable on people. Most folks on CAF think we’re all out to suck the soul out of kids in the public system and we’re hostile to religion. Poppycock. Maybe somewhere in this country, but not in my district. And in our state these religions MUST be taught as per standards.

The crusades are taught in high school. So I can’t speak to what they say about them NOW but when I was a kid it was pretty cut and dry…

In my area there is a lot of the opposite of what you might expect. It’s largely GOP here and you’ll never hear a teacher around here sucking up to Obama and his posse trust me!
It could be a function of locality in space and/or time. Given that you cite California as a location, I’d expect the schools to be more… secularized there. Perhaps it’s generational, then. I’m something of a young’un. Casting even a neutral light on Christian Europe would’ve been considered too religious in the system I experienced. It wasn’t that facts were concocted, really, it’s just telling which ones were omitted. For a long time, I had no idea that Islam was so militaristic in antiquity. I had just assumed they were in the Holy Land to begin with (because that’s the picture that was painted for me by our government betters).

Gotta’ push that great white guilt…
 
Doctrine can only be defined as those tenants of faith which have been affirmed by Council or a statement, ex-cathedra by the Pope. Why did this document lable it’s self “development of doctrine”? My guess is that it was designed to answer the objections of our seperated Eastern brenthern concerning this practice. The charge most typically regards the development of doctrine (from which they’ve profited much, but now they scorn because I guess they figure it’s “developed enough”, which seems arbitrary to me).

So, you really can’t say it’s a doctrine per-se, it’s never been proclaimed as such. Rather it’s an intragral practice which is rooted firmly in the doctrine of the Church (thus Apostles). The reason why I haven’t contested this issue much (doctrine or practice) is because it is so rooted in the doctrine that I really don’t see how you could accept the doctrine with out also accepting the practice.

Either the Eucharist is the body blood and divinity of Christ or it isn’t
Either it can be reserved, or it can’t

If the above is true, then adoration is a right, proper and true practice.
Crazzeto,

Thank you for clarifying the “doctrine” issue. Greatly appreciated.
Anna
 
That’s one of the things wrong with the Church today. Too many people calling themselves Catholics don’t believe what the Church teaches on a variety of subjects.

Anyone who dies in an unrepentant state of mortal sin will burn in hell. Don’t take my word for that. You can consult the Gospels.
‘Favorite’ may not be the right word, but hell, as a consequence of sin, is a very real message in the Gospels. Have you read them lately?
So, you believe Hell is a literal physical burning as an eternal torment?

Anna
 
I do. Scripture makes it pretty clear…hope I don’t end up there, yeesh!

But I’m convinced that hell would consist of me being forced to listen to mariachi music, watch Raiders games, watch American Idol, listen to Mylie Cyrus music, and watch infomercials…while I’m burning. And just to add to the torment I’d have to watch the LeBron James team search possibilities forever and ever!
So, you believe Hell is a literal physical burning as an eternal torment?

Anna
 
So, you believe Hell is a literal physical burning as an eternal torment?

Anna
The CCC states the primary punishment is seperation from God, but I certainly think it’s not going to be very colder there :eek:
 
I do. Scripture makes it pretty clear…hope I don’t end up there, yeesh!

But I’m convinced that hell would consist of me being forced to listen to mariachi music, watch Raiders games, watch American Idol, listen to Mylie Cyrus music, and watch infomercials…while I’m burning. And just to add to the torment I’d have to watch the LeBron James team search possibilities forever and ever!
Now that’s scary. :bigyikes:

Anna
 
So, you believe Hell is a literal physical burning as an eternal torment?

Anna
In one of her appearances at Fatima, the Blessed Virgin Mary showed the children a literal, physical burning as an eternal torment. Do I believe it? Let’s just say I’m not prepared to deny it. There are a lot of very hot spots out there in the universe and the Lord said what He said.

The Church teaches a literal hell as a place of eternal punishment for the damned. I believe it exists, whatever its form.:bigyikes:
 
This is warped logic. The Roman Church lost so much ground in North Africa to Islam as well. Was that punishment from God? Was the Reformation punishment from God? Were the millions of Catholics who converted to Mormonism, Jehovah’s Witnesses, Baptists, and every other denomination over the last few hundred years punishment laid out upon Catholicism for its sins? I don’t think so…This post is excessively harsh, outlandish?
You are certainly entitled to your opinion. Maybe a good research into the actions of the orthodox should be done. If you do start back with Constantine then move forward. You will notice several things. First, every heresy in the church up to the end of the first millenium was started in the East. Second after the schism the eastern church did not recognize any Council as a binding General council. The first eight councils they did because they dealt with eastern heresies. They accepted the authority of the Pope up to the schism. Then denied it afterwards. Still when they were attacked by Islam they appealed to the West to save their butts. But when the West was overrun by barbarians the East did not even lift a finger to help. It is no secret that Constantinople wanted to be the head of the Church since the Roman Empire, after Constantine, was centered there. They even went as far as to call themselves “The New Rome”. Also it is no secret that the emperor was heavily involved in church affairs in the Eastern Church. Look up the word Caesaropapism or Byzantiumism and see what it means. The fact is the emperor had control of the Orthodox Church to the point that the emperor would name who the Patriarch would be and frequently appointed his hand picked candidate. Other rulers like the Russian Czars did also. All of this is attested to by Metropolitan Kallistos Ware, who claimed that this was not Orthodox doctrine but rather the confusion of the Byzantine Empire with the Kingdom of God and the zeal of the Byzantines "to establish here on earth a living icon of God’s government in heaven was the reality behind it all. In short they thought they were better than the West and that has not changed.

Now, if that sounds harsh to you then take off your blinders and look at the historical reality.
 
To play devil’s advocate, the same thing can be said of Catholics. A Protestant can’t figure out why Catholics take John 6 literally when Jesus says that his words are “spirit and life” and that the flesh is of no consequence? Yet they believe “I am the vine” to be symbolic. It goes both ways. Sorting out metaphor from reality in Scripture is a full-time job! 😛
Because, quite frankly, protestants misinterpret John 6. They do so because they have to. John 6 is inherently Catholic. Notice, Jesus compared Himself to the manna of the OT which the Jews knew was literally food that they could eat and sustain their material bodies. So when Jesus says that the “Bread from Heaven” was His flesh the Jews immediately thought along the same lines as the OT mann that it was literal and material food. That is why they recoiled from Jesus. They were thinking cannabalism. But notice what Jesus does. He corrects their thinking by sayingthat his words were spirit and life. This was not material food Jesus was talking about. It was spiritual food and just as material food gives life to the body spiritual food gives life to the spirit. Jesus never corrected the Jews or His disciples from taking His words literally. He only corrected them taking them as meaning material food. This teaching of John 6 is not new. It was present in the church from the earliest of times and was so well accepted that it did not need a whole lot of explanation. Of course when protestantism rejected church authority it had to reject the doctrine of Transsubstantiation because Transsubstantiation required a church with the authority to consecrate the bread and wine. That meant that John 6 could not be understood as literal because that would be unprotestant.
 
If you do start back with Constantine then move forward. You will notice several things. First, every heresy in the church up to the end of the first millenium was started in the East.
Heresies were always in existence,both West and East,but the East,if I am correct,normally was riddled with more heresies,than the West.
Second after the schism the eastern church did not recognize any Council as a binding General council. The first eight councils they did because they dealt with eastern heresies.
Very true.If one takes the time to read many of the writings of the eastern church fathers,one will easily detect how many of the heresies or doctrinal issues were brought to Rome or Rome was informed. Nonetheless,many will argue,especially Orthodoxs that bishops always consulted each other when issues arrived? True,but what makes Rome different is that those eastern bishops took or presented the issues to Rome to make the final decision on the matter. If Rome has no jurisdiction over other regions or bishops,then why even bother taking it to Rome to settle it?
 
Maybe good research into Orthodoxy should be done. Let me know how it goes ;)

If you’ve followed my posts, I am aware of every single fact you lay out here, brother. And I have made the same point about the East in previous posts. However, it is unhelpful and unnecessary to point out ‘where’ the heresies sprang from as they have nothing to do with the East or West taking the blame. Donatism and Pelagianism are western heresies yet should the pope or the West be blamed for them? Arianism and Nestorianism are Eastern heresies yet should the East be held responsible? These nutty heresies were the problem of EVERYONE in the Church from east to west, north to south. And there were uncooperative bishops throughout Church history all over the place, including one idiotic heretic pope named Honorius I who advocated monothelitism and sent legates to a council to advocate that position with the other bishops. Yet I wouldn’t blame the West for monothelitism. These heresies largely occured PRIOR to the horribly sad schism of 1054 so breaking them up into eastern and western heresies isn’t helpful. They were everyone’s problem.

And your post doesn’t really address my original point. My post was trying in my own feeble way to address the idea that the idea of the Muslim conquering the Orthodox lands was somehow a punishment for their theology, etc. being ridiculous. That was my post. Your post deals more with heresies and blaming different parties. My post had nothing do with heresies and everything to do with the fact that both East and West lost land from invaders, atheists, communists, Muslims, and everything else. Some idiots might say the Catholics and Protestants have gotten what they deserve in Europe with Europe now being a socialist-style atheistic continent. I WOULDN’T make that assertion that it’s somehow the Church’s fault either way. History has a funny way of unraveling itself.
You are certainly entitled to your opinion. Maybe a good research into the actions of the orthodox should be done. If you do start back with Constantine then move forward. You will notice several things. First, every heresy in the church up to the end of the first millenium was started in the East. Second after the schism the eastern church did not recognize any Council as a binding General council. The first eight councils they did because they dealt with eastern heresies. They accepted the authority of the Pope up to the schism. Then denied it afterwards. Still when they were attacked by Islam they appealed to the West to save their butts. But when the West was overrun by barbarians the East did not even lift a finger to help. It is no secret that Constantinople wanted to be the head of the Church since the Roman Empire, after Constantine, was centered there. They even went as far as to call themselves “The New Rome”. Also it is no secret that the emperor was heavily involved in church affairs in the Eastern Church. Look up the word Caesaropapism or Byzantiumism and see what it means. The fact is the emperor had control of the Orthodox Church to the point that the emperor would name who the Patriarch would be and frequently appointed his hand picked candidate. Other rulers like the Russian Czars did also. All of this is attested to by Metropolitan Kallistos Ware, who claimed that this was not Orthodox doctrine but rather the confusion of the Byzantine Empire with the Kingdom of God and the zeal of the Byzantines "to establish here on earth a living icon of God’s government in heaven was the reality behind it all. In short they thought they were better than the West and that has not changed.

Now, if that sounds harsh to you then take off your blinders and look at the historical reality.
 
You’re preaching to the choir and don’t have to convince me, ink. I made it clear in many posts that I believe in Transubstantiation. And I don’t take the Protestant position on John 6 either. I believe the bread we eat is substantially Christ. It is more than spiritual food, however, as it is sacramentally the very full substantial presence of the Lord body, soul, and divinity. I was merely telling you devil’s advocate what THEY’LL tell you, not what I’ll tell you…
Because, quite frankly, protestants misinterpret John 6. They do so because they have to. John 6 is inherently Catholic. Notice, Jesus compared Himself to the manna of the OT which the Jews knew was literally food that they could eat and sustain their material bodies. So when Jesus says that the “Bread from Heaven” was His flesh the Jews immediately thought along the same lines as the OT mann that it was literal and material food. That is why they recoiled from Jesus. They were thinking cannabalism. But notice what Jesus does. He corrects their thinking by sayingthat his words were spirit and life. This was not material food Jesus was talking about. It was spiritual food and just as material food gives life to the body spiritual food gives life to the spirit. Jesus never corrected the Jews or His disciples from taking His words literally. He only corrected them taking them as meaning material food. This teaching of John 6 is not new. It was present in the church from the earliest of times and was so well accepted that it did not need a whole lot of explanation. Of course when protestantism rejected church authority it had to reject the doctrine of Transsubstantiation because Transsubstantiation required a church with the authority to consecrate the bread and wine. That meant that John 6 could not be understood as literal because that would be unprotestant.
 
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