The Early Church: If They Weren't Catholic, What Were They?

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SpectatorX,

This is a very interesting question. As a former Baptist, I understand the claim of attending the Church Christ founded. This is not a claim of Apostolic Succession, but a claim of teaching and following Christ as the early Church did—according to their understanding–that’s where it gets tricky. Ironically, the tradition of the ECF’s is scrapped, along with the liturgy of the early Church.

In the liturgy of my Episcopal Parish (Eucharist Rite I and Rite II,) we recite the Nicene Creek, acknowledging belief in “One Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church.”

Catholic = Universal (in all times in all places.)

Apostolic = Participating in the Apostle’s teaching (the Scriptures) and fellowship, the breaking of bread (the Eucharist) and the prayers (Acts 2:42.)

Catholic Encyclopedia, Link: newadvent.org/cathen/03449a.htm

There are probably many Protestants who would not recognize the word “Catholic” in any usage other than the “Catholic” Church.

Anna
This is true. I have relatives who do not understand nor will they recite the Apostles and Nicene Creeds because they say “one holy catholic and apostolic church” because they say “I don’t believe in the Catholic church (i.e. the Roman Catholic Church)”. I have been part of churches-Assemblies of God, non denominational, Roman Catholic and Episcopal who haver recited these creeds. I have seen them recited in Lutheran services as well.
 
I’ve had this question stuck in my craw for some time now. I’ve sought the answer at CRAM (that’s not a typo, by the way, I have decided to render that name as such due to a recent, messy falling-out with the moderators there regarding their objectivity: I asked for it, and they penalized me for doing so), but none of the seething malcontents or even the rare reasonable human beings who tarry there could give me any answer at all, really.
Here it is:

Often noncatholics will try to parry any assumption on our part that the early Church was actually Catholic by declaring that they were “catholic” (note the lower case ‘c’) as opposed to “Roman Catholic”. What strikes me as odd is that even if one makes a case that the earliest Christians weren’t Catholic, one must deal with the fact that they certainly don’t resemble anything else which exists in modernity (save the Orthodox, but that’s another can of worms altogether). It seems to be an attempt to argue against Catholicism using standards which cannot be met by the arguer, but, like I said, I could never get a rational response out of anyone.

What say you?
SpectatorX,

This is a very interesting question. As a former Baptist, I understand the claim of attending the Church Christ founded. This is not a claim of Apostolic Succession, but a claim of teaching and following Christ as the early Church did—according to their understanding–that’s where it gets tricky. Ironically, the tradition of the ECF’s is scrapped, along with the liturgy of the early Church.

In the liturgy of my Episcopal Parish (Eucharist Rite I and Rite II,) we recite the Nicene Creek, acknowledging belief in “One Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church.”

Catholic = Universal (in all times in all places.)

Apostolic = Participating in the Apostle’s teaching (the Scriptures) and fellowship, the breaking of bread (the Eucharist) and the prayers (Acts 2:42.)

Catholic Encyclopedia, Link: newadvent.org/cathen/03449a.htm

There are probably many Protestants who would not recognize the word “Catholic” in any usage other than the “Catholic” Church.

Anna
I understand the use of the term Apostolic as applied by noncatholics (this is seeming like a tricky term right now). What I mean to question is the validity of that use. Can someone claim their beliefs are Apostolic if their origin is clearly much later?
That depends on your view of what is considered “Apostolic.” You can claim your views are “Apostolic,” because they were handed down through a physical line of Apostolic Succession. Or, you can claim your views are Apostolic, because they are consistent with the beliefs and practices of the early Church. And you can claim both, which Catholics do–and I would agree to a certain extent. However, not all Catholic beliefs and practices can be traced to the “earliest Christians.”
I understand that one might be tempted to invoke the formulation of the Trinity or hypostatis (or perhaps the old CRAM favorite, the Assumption of Mary), but the key difference is that these are clearly built upon existing Christian belief.
Building upon existing Christian belief, or even “tradition” handed down through the centuries is not the issue you placed before us in this thread. You are asking us to look at the “earliest Christians,” and see if their beliefs and practices match that which exists in modernity.
What strikes me as odd is that even if one makes a case that the earliest Christians weren’t Catholic, one must deal with the fact that they certainly don’t resemble anything else which exists in modernity (save the Orthodox, but that’s another can of worms altogether). . . . .
They called them selves catholic or universal from the very start… It wasn’t until the reformation that people started trying to the term to describe the church as a sect.
Sola Fide (many understandings thereof, anyway) and Sola Scriptura are clearly innovations in that regard. The latter was actually instituted as the means of discarding previous development.
I’m not arguing for any of the solas of the Protestant Reformation. I agree that beliefs and practices entered Christianity that seem to have little connection with the beliefs of the “earliest Christians.” I think this is true on all sides, as gurney pointed out:
Objectively speaking here are some things the early church did NOT have:

Eucharistic Adoration, purgatory, indulgences, the Immaculate Conception, co-redemptrix language, vestments, mandatory celibacy, the language of infallibility, withholding the cup from the laity, the rosary, scapulars, etc. . . . .
At what point in history did the practices named in gurney’s post begin? How are they supported in Holy Scripture? What evidence do we have that each of these things were practiced by the “earliest Christians”?
Anna
 
The Way aka the Jesus Movement. If one really reads the teachings of Jesus he opposed religious authority, ritual, public prayer, wealth just to have wealth, power, civic matters (seperation of faith from politics) and religious laws.

I don’t see any connection to this and any support for the Catholic Church be that the Roman Catholic sect or some other incarnation that sought what Jesus but His example refused in his ministry.

Building a theological position from one ,just one, reference by Jesus in on gospel that was directed at Peter as the foundation of a succession is not acceptable I want to get a reference where Jesus build a holyplace, appointed a leadership and the same things his Father did for the Israelites in the OT. Then you have a case.

But there is no such reference as I can tell from the gospels, the other books I consider secondary since they are not the life and teachings of Jesus just accounts from followers. Many of which clearly went against the goodly example of simple faith of Jesus.
But apostolic succession isn’t built on a single verse. Yes, Peter was given the “keys to the kingdom” (harkening back to Isaiah 22 where the keys represent authority in an “office”) and the power to bind and lose and was described as the Rock on which the church would be built and that is an important verse. But in addition, Peter and the apostles are again in scripture given the power to bind and lose, and the ability to forgive sins.

When the apostles are listed, in each case, Peter is listed first. It is Peter who Jesus asks to feed his sheep.

The apostles lay hands on Matthius and appoint him as a successor to Judas.

The writings of the earliest christians attest to their understanding of the primacy of Peter and his successors showing us that authority was recognized through apostolic succession since the days of the early Church.

Jesus described a visible Church where disputes could be resolved - showing us there would be an authoritative church, in addition to/more than the invisible body of Christ and that this Church would stand for all time (against the gates of Hell). The Catholic Church holds that authority and has remained the visible Church through apostolic succession since the time of the apostles. There is no other Church that can make that claim.

If you want to resolve a “dispute” (Jesus said take it to the Church) and don’t acknowledge apostolic successsion – which church do you go to? Baptist, Lutheran, Episcopalian, non-denomoinational? You’ll get a different answer among the 40,000 plus denominations to even core doctrinal issues of faith.

Blessings,

Brian
 
This is true. I have relatives who do not understand nor will they recite the Apostles and Nicene Creeds because they say “one holy catholic and apostolic church” because they say “I don’t believe in the Catholic church (i.e. the Roman Catholic Church)”. I have been part of churches-Assemblies of God, non denominational, Roman Catholic and Episcopal who haver recited these creeds. I have seen them recited in Lutheran services as well.
JohnnyReb,

I know what you mean.

In my Episcopal Parish, we recite the creeds; and our liturgy is very similar to a Catholic Mass. Some prayers are exactly the same, word for word.

Anna
 
**QUOTE=SyCarl;6834838]These concepts are clearly present in the early church. Irenaeus writes that the oral apostolic teachings were now recorded in Scripture. **

newadvent.org/fathers/0103301.htm

In other words, oral Trqadition and Scripture have the same content.

John Chrysostom writes that we have the Scriptures instead of Paul and if we want to know anything we can look to the Scriptures.

newadvent.org/fathers/230709.htm

Elsewhere he writes that the Scriptures are what protect us from error and false teachers.

ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf114.iv.lxi.html

Both Chrysostom and Augustine make statements that any person believing sola scriptura would accept.

ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf113.v.iii.ii.html

newadvent.org/fathers/23053.htm

newadvent.org/fathers/12022.htm

Are there other truths? None would deny this, but what we need is in Scripture.

The idea of faith alone is mentioned by too many to quote here. They include Chrysostom, Ambrosiaster, Bede, Basil of Caesaria, Oeucumenius, Marinus Victornius, Origen and Augustine. In many places, as well, works are said to follow faith and show faith, which is akin to the Protestant concept of true faith.

this cannot possibly be true. if St Paul said by letter or word of mouth, he meant just that and it was not written. who would be righting what St Paul said personally?

not everything could have been written. it would be impossible to have a Book with everything down. there were many things that Jesus said and did and it was not written.
just like the jews have Oral Traditon so does the Church. protestants reject this because they dont have the OT and the Church. of course they going to reject it.
 
Hey Anna 🙂
That depends on your view of what is considered “Apostolic.” You can claim your views are “Apostolic,” because they were handed down through a physical line of Apostolic Succession. Or, you can claim your views are Apostolic, because they are consistent with the beliefs and practices of the early Church. And you can claim both, which Catholics do–and I would agree to a certain extent. However, not all Catholic beliefs and practices can be traced to the “earliest Christians.”
My main question here is, specifically which Catholic belief and or practice in your estimation can’t be traced back to apostolic roots?
Building upon existing Christian belief, or even “tradition” handed down through the centuries is not the issue you placed before us in this thread. You are asking us to look at the “earliest Christians,” and see if their beliefs and practices match that which exists in modernity.

I’m not arguing for any of the solas of the Protestant Reformation. I agree that beliefs and practices entered Christianity that seem to have little connection with the beliefs of the “earliest Christians.” I think this is true on all sides, as gurney pointed out:
At what point in history did the practices named in gurney’s post begin? How are they supported in Holy Scripture? What evidence do we have that each of these things were practiced by the “earliest Christians”?
Anna

To address Gurney:
Objectively speaking here are some things the early church did NOT have:
Eucharistic Adoration,
But we did always have the theology behind adoration, what he is pointing out here is a practice which developed inded, but added no “new theology”. Fundamentally, this is not something the Apostles would reject based upon Apostolic theology, thus given it’s orgine with the successors of the Apostles and it’s consitancy with Apostolic teaching from the very first day I would say it can be given said title.
purgatory,
Again, the theology has existed from the first day and the theology exists in all orthodox churches regardless tradition or status with regard to communion with rome. simply put, there has always been a state, condition or place, before one reaches heaven, in which they are purged of all that which would prevent their entry into the new Jeruselem.
indulgences,
Started with the earlist Christians, durring the persecutions and is based upon the theology of redemptive suffering. I.E. your suffering here on this earth can be used to offer real graces which can be used to aid the soul of another (or your self). This is because our sufferings are attached to those of Christ upon the cross. So when one looks at indulgences objectivly, it’s easy to see the Apostolic origins.
the Immaculate Conception,
Not defined until 1854, but it had long been debated the proof of which was provided by many decenting Orthodox brethern here. There are long apostolic roots to this teaching as well though. One of the earliest Marian “dogmas” is Mary as the second eve, this teaching can be proved from the writings of the earliest Apostles and can be shown not to be geographically localized at some early point, but indeed wide spread throughout the Christian world from the inception of the Church.

If indeed Mary is the second eve then, as the Fathers taught, then how could she not be immaculately conceived. As we know, the original type from the old testament is always a much more limited “version” of the new testament fulfillment. As Eve was created with out original sin, how could one argue that Mary is the second eve if she was not created likewise? More over from the start, the fathers always wrote about the aboslute purity of Mary, again if their writings are true, then how could she not have been created with out sin?
co-redemptrix language,
Well for start gurney’s point here is a bit of a red harring, there is no co-redemptrix teaching. Personally I don’t know if I subscribe to the points being made by some advocates of this teaching, thus it’s difficult to understand (at least for me) what any true teaching based upon this would be. All I can say is, there are a few points with regard to the communion of saints, but until we have an actual teaching to address then I think it best not to take shots in the dark.

Continued…
 
vestments,
In a sense, another bit of a red harring. Vestaments are merely a natural outgrowth of what people wore every day to services. Essentally, the fathers decided to keep everything about the earliest masses including the very clothing being worn by the celebrants. Over time, naturally this clothing was addorned to show reverence for the gift of the mass which Christ left us. Thus this is fully Apostolic, in this case you could say the Apostles almost literally gave us the shirts off their backs 😛
mandatory celibacy,
St. Paul him self advocated this, it’s not a new “teaching” or discipline more accuratly. What it actually is, is the Holy Father instructing Latin Rite priests to follow the teaching and example of St. Paul. Gurney should know though, that the Catholic church is bigger than just our own rite. This dicipline is only a practice of the Roman (or Latin) rite church. Universally practiced among all orthodox breatheren is the celebacy of Bishops.
the language of infallibility,
This language, again has Apostolic origin. That is, infalibility of the Church (as a whole) indeed even that of the Church of Rome specifically (i.e. the successor of Peter).
withholding the cup from the laity,
If one takes communion in any form, then they’ve received the whole thing. Personally I don’t prefer this practice, fortunetly I have yet to encounter it out side of some sort of disease scare. For instance the Diocese of Raleigh did so durring the swine flu scare.
the rosary, scapulars, etc. .
These are personal devotions, which at their core are built upon apostolic teaching. Actually the layity isn’t even required to partake or beleive in them, so I think evelvating these to the status of non-apostolic dogma is a bit much. I will admit they are nearly universally accepted, and personally I believe they should be. I’d suggest praying a rosary to anyone, after that they too will fully understand =)
 
**They all obviously see the early church from their own view, that’s why they formed their church communities in the way they did. I’m not defending any of them. I’m merely saying that they obviously believe the early church to have been like their church or else they would be Catholic. **
I understand what you are saying.However,they can ‘view’ it from their own lenses,but all one has to do is study the early church and acknowledge its beliefs and practices were very Catholic. That is one of the first steps many non-Catholics acknowledge when they study early church history,which leads them to the Catholic Church. The old cliche:

To be deep in history is to cease being Protestant.

Ask many of the ex-Protestants who are now apologists: Scott and Kimberly Hahn,Stephen Ray,etc.
 
I suppose you are referencing the seeming monarchial bishopric of James as your support? I think we read that as more of a single…pastor…who does assume more authority than a plurality of elders as other texts indicate. So sure, I do see your point but I believe the bulk of the evidence indicates our polity. I suppose you might also appeal to Paul’s appointing people. But that is akin to a large church planting smaller churches; which once again is how we do things.
I suppose “church planting” may be one way to describe this action, but what is generally lacking outside Catholicism is the consideration of the apostolic origin of these ordinations and the vested interest in maintaining orthodoxy which is readily observable in the Early Church.
The thing about Ignatius is you do recognize that with the larger and shorter recessions there exists heavy interpolations. Of course you then appeal to only the shorter recession. I find that because his polity differs from Clement, the Didache, and Polycarp that it increases the odds of interpolations. Is that a slam dunk? No, I suppose not.
I wonder if I am unaware of a nuanced meaning of “interpolation” as it applies to this topic.

You mention Clement. In doing so, you have given precisely the example I would have chosen to illustrate the Church acting with authority seeking to maintain orthodoxy. Of course, that’s assuming you mean Clement of Rome as opposed to Alexandria.
I would need a little more in the source department, as you can understand, for the concept of prayer’s to the departed. Anything first or second century would be nice.
It’s so difficult to find anything online which could serve as a suitable historical “source”. I spent more than an hour looking for some mention of the topic on some scholarly website to no avail [If any of you reading this have pointers for performing this task, by all means convey them!]. Here’s a Catholic Encyclopedia article about the epitaph of Abercius, but, objectively, I doubt I would assume objectivity were I in your shoes…

Harumph.
I avoid pejoratives at all costs. I am one of the nicest people on this forum. Ask anyone.
A welcome but disorienting quality, to be sure.
 
The idea of faith alone is mentioned by too many to quote here. They include Chrysostom, Ambrosiaster, Bede, Basil of Caesaria, Oeucumenius, Marinus Victornius, Origen and Augustine. In many places, as well, works are said to follow faith and show faith, which is akin to the Protestant concept of true faith.
The idea of faith alone does not work, too many believe that they only need faith. They can be “faithful” to Christ but go on sinning and believe they will still go to Heaven. It’s not that the concept doesn’t work for some people but it does mislead many who are fed bad theology and think they can go on living their materialist lives with faith but no works.
 
I suppose “church planting” may be one way to describe this action, but what is generally lacking outside Catholicism is the consideration of the apostolic origin of these ordinations and the vested interest in maintaining orthodoxy which is readily observable in the Early Church.

I wonder if I am unaware of a nuanced meaning of “interpolation” as it applies to this topic.

You mention Clement. In doing so, you have given precisely the example I would have chosen to illustrate the Church acting with authority seeking to maintain orthodoxy. Of course, that’s assuming you mean Clement of Rome as opposed to Alexandria.

It’s so difficult to find anything online which could serve as a suitable historical “source”. I spent more than an hour looking for some mention of the topic on some scholarly website to no avail [If any of you reading this have pointers for performing this task, by all means convey them!]. Here’s a Catholic Encyclopedia article about the epitaph of Abercius, but, objectively, I doubt I would assume objectivity were I in your shoes…

Harumph.

A welcome but disorienting quality, to be sure.
Maybe a final redactor…if interpolation seems wrong. It stands opposed to the polity described in other documents. Was it that varied? A monarchial bishop in one area and plurality of elders? I can see Jerusalem. Because I recognize who and what James did.
Although we use a plurality of elders, I do get why the Baptist have their single pastor and in “some ways” it is not completely different from Eastern Orthodoxy ( a powerful but somewhat independent monarchial Bishop who works with the other bishops). But Catholic polity…I do not really see that. Now, you may say I do not grasp Catholic polity, I think that I do but perhaps you will elaborate.
Actually Clement is not any different also with what we see today. Fundamentalists are always correcting other Fundamentalists!
Well I dont know where to go now. I will let you decide.
 
Thank you for looking.
Its funny how people define early. If 350 years is still early then in 2150 AD it will still be early American history. I know it is a matter of perspective but certainly a lot of things have already changed in 225 years.
Careful, remember the date the bible was canonized
Then my point stands. If you wish to discuss the canon, I’m discussing that with the venerable Elvisman right now.
Sorry I don’t get the correlation here, I was commenting on your definition of the early church
 
As I see it, the big problems with the way people use this idea that the early church was “Catholic” is that it is done anachronistically, and it is used as an argument in a circular fashion.

The modern term “Catholic Church” is a proper name. Of course it also describes how Catholics understand themselves, but others use it as a courtesy. But it is not a reasonable argument to say "because we are the Catholic Church, we are identical with the Early Church, which understood itself to be catholic.

I don’t think anyone argues that the Early Church didn’t consider itself to be catholic, or orthodox. That doesn’t mean that any Christian organization that understands itself to be catholic and/or orthodox is identical with the Early Church.

That, I think, is what people mean when they say the Early Church was not Catholic. In general, I use Early Church, and then Western or Eastern Church, or just, “the Church” when discussing history. It is less confusing and avoids begging the question.
 
Maybe a final redactor…if interpolation seems wrong. It stands opposed to the polity described in other documents. Was it that varied? A monarchial bishop in one area and plurality of elders? I can see Jerusalem. Because I recognize who and what James did.
Although we use a plurality of elders, I do get why the Baptist have their single pastor and in “some ways” it is not completely different from Eastern Orthodoxy ( a powerful but somewhat independent monarchial Bishop who works with the other bishops). But Catholic polity…I do not really see that. Now, you may say I do not grasp Catholic polity, I think that I do but perhaps you will elaborate.
The common caricature of Catholicism is that of a single pope ordering everyone around, and, to be fair, I suppose there have been some instances in which that wasn’t far from the truth. More often, though, the principles of collegiality and subsidiarity are played out. The Pope is not the bisop of every diocese, after all. I was always amused by the certain sort of people who try to place the recent scandals at the Pope’s feet because he “didn’t do anything.” These are the people who believe whole-heartedly in this caricature such that when it fails in practice before their very eyes and they must choose to either reject it or come to the conclusion (against all the evidence available) that the Pope must be “in on it,” they plow straight ahead…

Whoops. Tangent. Redirecting.

The most succinct way I can imagine to make this point is that Magisterial decisions made by a council are considered “ordinary” and ones by the Pope “extraordinary” (and relatively few by comparison, I might add).
Actually Clement is not any different also with what we see today. Fundamentalists are always correcting other Fundamentalists!
But none of the Fundamentalists I’ve seen will send legates along with their letters to ensure that their directions are followed. Even though there were some dangling issues in the early centuries to be ironed out, they eventually were, and by a Church which was considered by all parties to possess religious authority - a notion which would be rejected out of hand by most of the Fundamentalists I know who balk at the idea of a Christian holding religious authority over anyone.
Well I dont know where to go now. I will let you decide.
That would be a poor decision, I should think. I’m far more used to parrying insults with sarcasm than this polite discourse stuff. I tend to have a sort of in-the-moment approach to these things anyway.
 
John Chrysostom writes that we have the Scriptures instead of Paul and if we want to know anything we can look to the Scriptures.
"All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness…All such, then, “is given by inspiration of God”; therefore, he means, do not doubt; and it is “profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: that the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.”…“For doctrine.” For thence we shall know, whether we ought to learn or to be ignorant of anything. And thence we may disprove what is false, thence we may be corrected and brought to a right mind, may be comforted and consoled, and if anything is deficient, we may have it added to us…For this is the exhortation of the Scripture given, that the man of God may be rendered perfect by it; without this therefore he cannot be perfect. You have the Scriptures, he says, in place of me. If you would learn anything, you may learn it from them. And if he thus wrote to Timothy, who was filled with the Spirit, how much more to us!
(Homilies on Second Timothy, 9, 3:16-17)
St. John Chrysostom says many high things of Scripture here, but never does he put it at odds with Sacred Tradition. He would be a hypocrite to do so, after all, given that in his fourth homily on 2 Thessalonians he says:
Hence it is manifest, that they did not deliver all things by Epistle, but many things also unwritten, and in like manner both the one and the other are worthy of credit. Therefore let us think the tradition of the Church also worthy of credit. It is a tradition, seek no farther. Here he shows that there were many who were shaken.
Both Chrysostom and Augustine make statements that any person believing sola scriptura would accept.
For brevity’s sake (and the practial knowledge that none would deny Augustine’s belief in the rest of Sacred Tradition) I’ll leave Augustine alone.
Are there other truths? None would deny this, but what we need is in Scripture.
What one might deny is the validity of the either/or approach. You place a false dilemma between unwritten Tradition and Scripture which none of the men you quoted would have endorsed. It is this tendency to divide the deposit of Faith which I do not see in early Chistianity.
The idea of faith alone is mentioned by too many to quote here. They include Chrysostom, Ambrosiaster, Bede, Basil of Caesaria, Oeucumenius, Marinus Victornius, Origen and Augustine. In many places, as well, works are said to follow faith and show faith, which is akin to the Protestant concept of true faith.
And what did these men mean by “faith alone”? That faith apart from the sacraments is salvific? I doubt you could find one father who denies baptismal regeneration. Or perhaps that personal sin cannot condemn people to Hell after a certain point? That notion didn’t appear until Nominalism, if I recall. As was the case with your previous quotes, it isn’t enough to find a snippet here or there which, apart from the context, can be made to seem like it supports a modern doctrine. What matters is what these men actually meant when saying these things. Otherwise, I’m still left wondering how most Protestant notions can be squared with the Early Church.

And nobody wants that. 🤷
 
St. John Chrysostom says many high things of Scripture here, but never does he put it at odds with Sacred Tradition. He would be a hypocrite to do so, after all, given that in his fourth homily on 2 Thessalonians he says:

For brevity’s sake (and the practial knowledge that none would deny Augustine’s belief in the rest of Sacred Tradition) I’ll leave Augustine alone.

What one might deny is the validity of the either/or approach. You place a false dilemma between unwritten Tradition and Scripture which none of the men you quoted would have endorsed. It is this tendency to divide the deposit of Faith which I do not see in early Chistianity.

And what did these men mean by “faith alone”? That faith apart from the sacraments is salvific? I doubt you could find one father who denies baptismal regeneration. Or perhaps that personal sin cannot condemn people to Hell after a certain point? That notion didn’t appear until Nominalism, if I recall. As was the case with your previous quotes, it isn’t enough to find a snippet here or there which, apart from the context, can be made to seem like it supports a modern doctrine. What matters is what these men actually meant when saying these things. Otherwise, I’m still left wondering how most Protestant notions can be squared with the Early Church.

And nobody wants that. 🤷
The historical preponderence of evidence, always leads to the Catholic Church being exaimned and torn down.🤷

Peace and God Bless
onenow1
 
St. John Chrysostom says many high things of Scripture here, but never does he put it at odds with Sacred Tradition. He would be a hypocrite to do so, after all, given that in his fourth homily on 2 Thessalonians he says:

What one might deny is the validity of the either/or approach. You place a false dilemma between unwritten Tradition and Scripture which none of the men you quoted would have endorsed. It is this tendency to divide the deposit of Faith which I do not see in early Chistianity.

And what did these men mean by “faith alone”? That faith apart from the sacraments is salvific? I doubt you could find one father who denies baptismal regeneration. Or perhaps that personal sin cannot condemn people to Hell after a certain point? That notion didn’t appear until Nominalism, if I recall. As was the case with your previous quotes, it isn’t enough to find a snippet here or there which, apart from the context, can be made to seem like it supports a modern doctrine. What matters is what these men actually meant when saying these things. Otherwise, I’m still left wondering how most Protestant notions can be squared with the Early Church.

And nobody wants that. 🤷
You’re totally right. If we look at it logically, and in the context of the current religious culture, people John Chrysostom and Basil the Great could not have endorsed the current beliefs of “sola scriptura” or “faith alone”. I pick these two out of the examples given because they both were writers of the Divine Liturgy…so therefore they were supporters of all the the things that protestants critique such as vestments, eucharist, confession, and religious rituals in general…etc. You can’t take a quote from 1500 yrs ago and interpret it with today’s lingo…
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by SyCarl
The idea of faith alone is mentioned by too many to quote here. They include Chrysostom, Ambrosiaster, Bede, Basil of Caesaria, Oeucumenius, Marinus Victornius, Origen and Augustine. In many places, as well, works are said to follow faith and show faith, which is akin to the Protestant concept of true faith.
That is not true at all.None of the church fathers held to notion of faith alone as Protestants hold to since the Reformation. If they held to it or Sola Scriptura,it is rather strange how not one church father defended either novel doctrine.
 
At what point in history did the practices named in gurney’s post begin? How are they supported in Holy Scripture? What evidence do we have that each of these things were practiced by the “earliest Christians”?
To address Gurney:
Objectively speaking here are some things the early church did NOT have:
Eucharistic Adoration,
But we did always have the theology behind adoration, what he is pointing out here is a practice which developed inded, but added no “new theology”. Fundamentally, this is not something the Apostles would reject based upon Apostolic theology, thus given it’s orgine with the successors of the Apostles and it’s consitancy with Apostolic teaching from the very first day I would say it can be given said title.
I need more than an assumption that the Apostles wouldn’t have rejected Eucharistic Adoration. What “theology” of the Apostles points to Eucharistic Adoration? Cite the earliest Christian doctrine of Eucharistic Adoration.

I believe in the “Real Presence;” and I agree with reservation of the consecrated Host so that the sick and home-bound may partake of the Body and Blood of Christ. But reservation of the consecrated Host in a Monstrance for an Adoration Chapel seems to be something else entirely. This is one of the obstacles in my consideration of Catholicism. So, I will carefully weigh any solid resources you provide.
purgatory,
Again, the theology has existed from the first day and the theology exists in all orthodox churches regardless tradition or status with regard to communion with rome. simply put, there has always been a state, condition or place, before one reaches heaven, in which they are purged of all that which would prevent their entry into the new Jeruselem.
Again, I need specifics. If the theology has existed from the “first day,” please provide your sources. Not exactly sure what you mean by “first day.”
indulgences,
Started with the earlist Christians, durring the persecutions and is based upon the theology of redemptive suffering. I.E. your suffering here on this earth can be used to offer real graces which can be used to aid the soul of another (or your self). This is because our sufferings are attached to those of Christ upon the cross. So when one looks at indulgences objectivly, it’s easy to see the Apostolic origins.
Again, I need specific sources.
the Immaculate Conception,
Not defined until 1854, but it had long been debated the proof of which was provided by many decenting Orthodox brethern here. There are long apostolic roots to this teaching as well though. One of the earliest Marian “dogmas” is Mary as the second eve, this teaching can be proved from the writings of the earliest Apostles and can be shown not to be geographically localized at some early point, but indeed wide spread throughout the Christian world from the inception of the Church.

If indeed Mary is the second eve then, as the Fathers taught, then how could she not be immaculately conceived. As we know, the original type from the old testament is always a much more limited “version” of the new testament fulfillment. As Eve was created with out original sin, how could one argue that Mary is the second eve if she was not created likewise? More over from the start, the fathers always wrote about the aboslute purity of Mary, again if their writings are true, then how could she not have been created with out sin?
I am open to the possibility of the Immaculate Conception. I realize the Blessed Virgin Mary is disregarded to a shameful extent in many Protestant Churches. In the Baptist Church, we rarely heard the name of Mary, unless it was during Christmas. I acknowledge Mary as the first to have the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, the indwelling of Christ. Eve was disobedient; while Mary demonstrated a beautiful obedience. I realize Mary carried our Savior in her womb; and she suffered greatly seeing her Son crucified. I’ve come a long way in my view of Mary. I just need more proof for the Immaculate Conception.
co-redemptrix language,
Well for start gurney’s point here is a bit of a red harring, there is no co-redemptrix teaching. Personally I don’t know if I subscribe to the points being made by some advocates of this teaching, thus it’s difficult to understand (at least for me) what any true teaching based upon this would be. All I can say is, there are a few points with regard to the communion of saints, but until we have an actual teaching to address then I think it best not to take shots in the dark. Continued…
If I haven’t been convinced of the Immaculate Conception, there is no way to even consider the Co-Redemptrix Mariology. I realize Pope John Paul II spoke of Mary as the “Co-Redemptrix of humanity.” I’m a fan of JP II; but, even so, I’m not convinced.

Crazzeto, you know I will carefully consider your comments and resources. I just need more proof. 🙂

Anna

P.S. I will answer your post #47 tomorrow. Too tired tonight. :sad_bye:
 
The original church of Jesus and the disciples was called “The Way” it was one of many churches but the very first one of the originals of Jesus.Many Presbyters were married and it was a booming church and when they traveled they also took their wives as much as possible and their children they were families and Jesus believed in families, weddings and get together.Catholic church did not start back then it was started aft4er the second century as it is written in history books and has not changed because it is true.Many of the catholic doctrines have changed for dating reasons but the real history remains the same.They can go back to Christ but they cannot tell you where they were located because they were started in Rome and i will not go any further I thought this was a nondenominational site?
 
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