Cav-
To someone looking at some of this material for the first time, the sentence I highlighted in red seems to reinforce the idea that the East’s REAL arguments with Rome were mostly personal and political and not doctrinal at all. So, the filioque and azyme bread are mere pretexts. Sheesh.
I’ve known for most of my life that the Anglican Church was founded as a direct result of Henry VIII’s insatiable desire for a male heir (or Ann Boleyn or both), and that is a pretty pathetic basis for hiving off from the true Church.
But now it appears that Orthodoxy is sprung from the blind ambition of Photius and Caerularius for reasons that are no less shameful than that of Henry VIII?
And Orthodox are *proud *of this history?

Please tell me it’s not so.
I’m asking because I honestly don’t know: Is the following true or not?
"The quarrel of Photius was a gross defiance of lawful church order. Ignatius was the rightful bishop without any question; he had reigned peaceably for eleven years. Then he refused Communion to a man guilty of open incest (857). But that man was the regent Bardas, so the Government professed to depose Ignatius and intruded Photius into his see. Pope Nicholas I had no quarrel against the Eastern Church; he had no quarrel against the Byzantine see. He stood out for the rights of the lawful bishop. Both Ignatius and Photius had formally appealed to him. It was only when Photius found that he had lost his case that he and the Government preferred schism to submission (867). It is even doubtful how far this time there was any general Eastern schism at all. In the council that restored Ignatius (869) the other patriarchs declared that they had at once accepted the pope’s former verdict. But Photius had formed an anti-Roman party which was never afterwards dissolved.
“How deeply rooted and far-spread it was, is shown by the absolutely gratuitous outburst 150 years later under Michael Caerularius (1043-58). For this time there was not even the shadow of a pretext. No one had disputed Caerularius’s right as patriarch; the pope had not interfered with him in any way at all. And suddenly in 1053 he sends off a declaration of war, then shuts up the Latin churches at Constantinople, hurls a string of wild accusations, and shows in every possible way that he wants a schism, apparently for the mere pleasure of not being in communion with the West. He got his wish.”
I’m just asking. There will be no rejoinder from me on this matter.
But please be honest. We have our Borgias…who are these Orthodox clergymen and did they really split Christendom because of their own selfish ambitions?