A
Antonius_Lupus
Guest
Dear brothers and sisters,
I wanted to ask you, my Eastern and Oriental Catholic brethren, about an issue that came up recently.
I am a Latin Catholic, but I have “Eastern sensitivities”, and it was due to the testimony of a former Orthodox, now Melkite Catholic, priest that kept me in the bosom of the One True Church founded upon the Rock of St. Peter.
Since my journey home to the Catholic Church of Jesus Christ, I have cherished the fact that only in the Catholic Church can one find *all *the extant expressions of Apostolic Christianity.
Yet, from time to time, I have felt the temptation to join the Orthodox schism (I have since I was in RCIA). One of the issues that fueled this temptation was the idea that the Catholic Church is, ultimately, just a Roman Church. Namely, I was worried that the Catholic Church’s official and ecumenical teaching was rooted in Latin theology…and I feared that this would show the Church to not truly be “katholikos.”
Recently I was struggling with an issue concerning the sacrament of Confession. My spiritual father/mentor, a Latin rite Deacon, showed me one of the declarations of the Ecumenical Council of Trent.
In that session, the Council used the terms “matter and form” when speaking of the Sacrament of Penance. It also uses terminology that is (in my understanding) Latin/scholastic in theology.
It mentions “mortal and venial” sins. “Transubstantiation.” “Matter and form” (regarding the sacraments).
My question is essentially this:
My understanding of an Ecumenical Council is that it is the highest exercise of the charism of infallibility in the Church. Basically I understand an Ecumenical Council as “the Holy Spirit speaking.”
Therefore, I find it a bit disturbing to see the Holy Spirit speaking in terms of Latin terminology.
Does this mean that Eastern and Oriental Catholics must see the Latin/scholastic terms as “better” than there own traditions since this was what was used in an Ecumenical Council?
Are Eastern and Oriental Catholics now bound towards or in the Latin terminological positions since they were used to define doctrine in an Ecumenical Council?
And if this is so, does this not damage the idea that I cherish so much…namely that one can be “Orthodox in communion with Rome” (in the sense that one is able to retain one’s own venerable Eastern heritage while being in communion with the Roman See)?
Any thoughts?
I wanted to ask you, my Eastern and Oriental Catholic brethren, about an issue that came up recently.
I am a Latin Catholic, but I have “Eastern sensitivities”, and it was due to the testimony of a former Orthodox, now Melkite Catholic, priest that kept me in the bosom of the One True Church founded upon the Rock of St. Peter.
Since my journey home to the Catholic Church of Jesus Christ, I have cherished the fact that only in the Catholic Church can one find *all *the extant expressions of Apostolic Christianity.
Yet, from time to time, I have felt the temptation to join the Orthodox schism (I have since I was in RCIA). One of the issues that fueled this temptation was the idea that the Catholic Church is, ultimately, just a Roman Church. Namely, I was worried that the Catholic Church’s official and ecumenical teaching was rooted in Latin theology…and I feared that this would show the Church to not truly be “katholikos.”
Recently I was struggling with an issue concerning the sacrament of Confession. My spiritual father/mentor, a Latin rite Deacon, showed me one of the declarations of the Ecumenical Council of Trent.
In that session, the Council used the terms “matter and form” when speaking of the Sacrament of Penance. It also uses terminology that is (in my understanding) Latin/scholastic in theology.
It mentions “mortal and venial” sins. “Transubstantiation.” “Matter and form” (regarding the sacraments).
My question is essentially this:
My understanding of an Ecumenical Council is that it is the highest exercise of the charism of infallibility in the Church. Basically I understand an Ecumenical Council as “the Holy Spirit speaking.”
Therefore, I find it a bit disturbing to see the Holy Spirit speaking in terms of Latin terminology.
Does this mean that Eastern and Oriental Catholics must see the Latin/scholastic terms as “better” than there own traditions since this was what was used in an Ecumenical Council?
Are Eastern and Oriental Catholics now bound towards or in the Latin terminological positions since they were used to define doctrine in an Ecumenical Council?
And if this is so, does this not damage the idea that I cherish so much…namely that one can be “Orthodox in communion with Rome” (in the sense that one is able to retain one’s own venerable Eastern heritage while being in communion with the Roman See)?
Any thoughts?