P
promethius
Guest
My apologies for not being more clear. They are incorrect in asserting that leavened bread can be the Eucharist when unleavened bread, which is what is required in Sacred Scripture and what Christ would have used, is not.While I do not wish to dispute the particulars of Church teaching or Jewish law and practice, etc. I must take issue with a couple of things.
- You say that “they are incorrect”, yet how can this be since the Holy Father has said that the EO has a valid priesthood and valid Sacraments?
I’m not saying they don’t have a valid sacrament, just that their rejection of our Eucharist as invalid is incorrect.
Nonetheless, the old covenant requirements of the passover require unleavened bread, and those requirements are recorded as originating from God, rather than from levitical, pharisaic, or rabbinic law. So when Jesus healed on the sabbath, He was rejecting rabbinic law, which is altogether different than rejecting divine law.
- Jesus, a good Jew, was not above doing things outside of Jewish Law. He healed on the Sabbath, he said that it is not what goes in the mouth but what comes out that defiles a man and in a vision, told Peter not to call “unclean” that which God has made.
For example, Christ had to die to fulfill the requirements of the passover. Christ died with no broken bones (an unblemished lamb) etc. All the requirements of the passover were met in the passion of the Christ, including the requirement to dispose of all leaven when celebrating passover. In other words, the parts of jewish law that were punitive (levitical) were fulfilled in the passion. The parts of Jewish law that were man-made, namely the pharisaic and the rabbinic, were NEVER part of divine law to begin with, and so Christ had no problem doing away with those… but when it came to the divine law that was laid forth by God, those Christ held fast to.