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PrisonerOfChrist
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In Matthew chapter 19 the exclusion clause to marriage is unchastity. How does unchastity per se invalidate the sacrament of marriage?
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tafan2
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The Church teaches it does not. Now, it may be evidence of a lack of intent at the time of marraige., But in and of itself it cannot make a marraige invalid. Invalidity is something that occurs at the wedding.
As to Jesus words, I believe many scholars think he was actually referring to invalid weddings or improper relationships.
As to Jesus words, I believe many scholars think he was actually referring to invalid weddings or improper relationships.
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RenaissanceMensch
Guest
Not sure what you mean by “exclusion clause.”
Nothing invalidates a valid marriage except death.
Moreover, what Matthew 19:9 says is not merely “unchastity” but “fornication” specifically, i.e., sexual intercourse outside the marital act (i.e., adultery). And it is generally understood that adultery dissolves the marriage quoad thorum but not quoad vinculum, that is, with respect to the bed but not the bond, that is, what adultery does is absolve the aggrieved spouse of their obligation to render the marital debt without otherwise freeing them to offer themselves in marriage to another.
Nothing invalidates a valid marriage except death.
Moreover, what Matthew 19:9 says is not merely “unchastity” but “fornication” specifically, i.e., sexual intercourse outside the marital act (i.e., adultery). And it is generally understood that adultery dissolves the marriage quoad thorum but not quoad vinculum, that is, with respect to the bed but not the bond, that is, what adultery does is absolve the aggrieved spouse of their obligation to render the marital debt without otherwise freeing them to offer themselves in marriage to another.
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Stephen_says
Guest
"It is worthy of remark, that in the parallel texts, St. Mark x. 2. and St. Luke xvi. 18. and St. Paul to Corinthians vii. 10. omit the exception of fornication; and also that St. Matthew himself omits it in the second part of the verse; and says absolutely, that he who shall marry her that is put away committeth adultery. "
https://www.ecatholic2000.com/haydock/ntcomment21.shtml
https://www.ecatholic2000.com/haydock/ntcomment21.shtml
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PennyinCanada
Guest
This is my guess. We have a clue when, St Joseph finding out that Mary was pregnant, decided to quietly divorce her. They were not married yet nor living together. Yet, the word divorce is used here.
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