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Amanda_B
Guest
I am a political science major and am taking a class right now called A History of Western Political Thought. We are currently reading works by St. Augustine and Thomas Aquinas. The debate in class took on a very religious tone, a classmate of mine opined to the professor that Christian philosophy is not immutable because one of the ten commandments in the Bible is “thou shall not kill” and yet the bible also says (paraphrasing the way my classmate worded it) that if a man sleeps with an animal he should be killed as punishment. I answered by trying to explain about how that passage is from the Book of Leviticus and how it was a civil code put forth for the Jewish people, it was not divine law, as is the case with the ten commandments, which are eternal. I then also explained about those civil codes and traditions of the Old Testament being “fulfilled” by Christ’s death and resurrection and hence, why it is not incumbent upon Christians to continue to practice those codes and traditions post Christ’s appearance. However, another classmate then questioned why the God of the Old Testament would promulgate such harsh civil laws, and why in general, if God is unchanging, He would seem to be of two such different temperamental persuasions in the Old Testament and the New. As I have recently begun to read the Bible from beginning to end, and am currently in the Book of Deuteronomy, I have myself been actually wondering the same thing. I have found it difficult to understand why, for instance, God seems so unhesitant about wiping out entire tribes of Israelites when they rebel against Him. In addition, there are several examples in the Old Testament in which God either passively allows or actively engages in destroying whole groups of people in foreign lands that are engaged in some sort of widespread sinfulness. Yet I know that somewhere in the New Testament, I do not know the exact place, Jesus talks about how we should not assume that, if we see a natural disaster befall a nation of people, that this event was allowed to happen as a result of that people’s sinfulness because, essentially, God does not operate in that manner. But if God does not operate in that manner, why in the Old Testament does he involve Himself in human relations to the point of personally destroying whole groups of people? And in general, the question concerning the difference between the God of the Old Testament and the God of the New testament has been frustrating me for awhile and it would be helpful for me on a personal level, as well as in the context of discussing with classmates, if I could better understand this apparent conundrum.