J
jacobaer
Guest
I am asking anyone who holds to Sola Scriptura to make the case for the Hypostatic Union of our Lord Jesus Christ using Scripture alone.
Here is the definition of the Hypostatic Union:
From the Council of Chalcedon, 451 A.D.
"So,* following the saintly fathers*, we all with one voice teach the confession of one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ:
A) the same perfect in divinity and perfect in humanity, the same truly God and truly man, of a rational soul and a body;
B) consubstantial with the Father as regards his divinity, and the same consubstantial with us as regards his humanity;
C) like us in all respects except for sin;
D) begotten before the ages from the Father as regards his divinity, and in the last days the same for us and for our salvation from Mary, the virgin God-bearer as regards his humanity;
E) one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only-begotten, acknowledged in two natures which undergo no confusion, no change, no division, no separation;
F) at no point was the difference between the natures taken away through the union, but rather the property of both natures is preserved and comes together into a single person and a single subsistent being;
G) he is not parted or divided into two persons, but is one and the same only-begotten Son, God, Word, Lord Jesus Christ,
just as the prophets taught from the beginning about him, and as the Lord Jesus Christ himself instructed us, and as the creed of the fathers handed it down to us."
I added the paragraph breaks with designating letters for easy reference.
Please tell me how these fathers of the faith knew from Scripture alone points E, F and G.
Peace,
Jacobaer
P.S. Evangelical Protestant theologian made the following statement, taken from Systematic Theology Volume 1, God the Son: The Hypostatic Union (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Kregel Publications, 1993, p. 387):
“…the Bible presents no systematized Christology but rather offers a simple narrative with its attending issues…”
Here is the definition of the Hypostatic Union:
From the Council of Chalcedon, 451 A.D.
"So,* following the saintly fathers*, we all with one voice teach the confession of one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ:
A) the same perfect in divinity and perfect in humanity, the same truly God and truly man, of a rational soul and a body;
B) consubstantial with the Father as regards his divinity, and the same consubstantial with us as regards his humanity;
C) like us in all respects except for sin;
D) begotten before the ages from the Father as regards his divinity, and in the last days the same for us and for our salvation from Mary, the virgin God-bearer as regards his humanity;
E) one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only-begotten, acknowledged in two natures which undergo no confusion, no change, no division, no separation;
F) at no point was the difference between the natures taken away through the union, but rather the property of both natures is preserved and comes together into a single person and a single subsistent being;
G) he is not parted or divided into two persons, but is one and the same only-begotten Son, God, Word, Lord Jesus Christ,
just as the prophets taught from the beginning about him, and as the Lord Jesus Christ himself instructed us, and as the creed of the fathers handed it down to us."
I added the paragraph breaks with designating letters for easy reference.
Please tell me how these fathers of the faith knew from Scripture alone points E, F and G.
Peace,
Jacobaer
P.S. Evangelical Protestant theologian made the following statement, taken from Systematic Theology Volume 1, God the Son: The Hypostatic Union (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Kregel Publications, 1993, p. 387):
“…the Bible presents no systematized Christology but rather offers a simple narrative with its attending issues…”