J
jimmy
Guest
I was reading The Summa on line and I saw a thing that was a summary of Thomas’ beliefs on the Immaculate Conception. I was wondering whether this would be orthodox.
ccel.org/a/aquinas/summa/TP/TP027.html
I saw this on the ccel site. What do you think? Is it acceptable in Catholicism now? Did Mary contract the debt?THE LAW AND THE COURSE OF ORIGINAL SIN UNDER THE LAW . . . . . all
descendants from Adam . . . . . spring from Adam materially and seminally
. . . . . the body lies (not under the guilty, but) under the effects of
original sin . . . . . the stricken body dispositively causes the soul to
contract the guilt of original sin . . . . . all contract both debt and
stain . . . . . all need a Redeemer to destroy the stain contracted
PARTIALLY EXEMPT FROM THE LAW; PRIVILEGE OF IMMACULATE CONCEPTION . . . .
. the Blessed Virgin . . . . . springs from Adam materially and seminally
. . . . . the body lies (not under the guilt, but) under the effects of
original sin . . . . . the stricken body would have dispositively caused
the soul to contract the guilt of original sin . . . . . the soul at the
moment of union with the body was prevented by the infusion of grace from
contracting sin . . . . . Mary contracted the debt, but not the stain . .
. . . Mary needed a Redeemer to prevent her from contracting the stain
WHOLLY EXEMPT FROM THE LAW; MIRACULOUS CONCEPTION . . . . . Our Blessed
Lord . . . . . springs from Adam materially, not seminally (Q[31], A[1])
. . . . . His body lay under neither guilt nor effects of original sin .
. . . . the body being entirely free, could not transmit the stain to His
soul . . . . . no preventive grace needed . . . . . Jesus Christ
contracted neither debt nor stain . . . . . Jesus Christ is not redeemed,
but the Redeemer
ccel.org/a/aquinas/summa/TP/TP027.html