Mary’s use of the word “may” (lit. be it) is not giving consent. If consent, or permission, was being sought there, then it would have been Gabriel who would have first used the word “may” when confronting Mary. And then Mary would have responded with “yes you may.” That’s not what happened according to the text.
I showed way back in Post #144 that the interaction between Gabriel & Mary was that of consent being sought and given.
That post was
TEN days ago! And yet you have done nothing so far to refute it.
So here is the material from Post #144 once more:
Generally speaking, consent can be requested in two different ways, and we see examples of both all the time in everyday life:
- I can ask for consent using an interrogative statement.
For example: I can say to you, “Moondweller, will you please answer my list of questions from Post #127?”
- I can express to someone a plan that involves him, and await for him to either accept the plan or reject it.
For example: I can say to you, “Moondweller, I envision this forum as being a scholarly debate in which you answer the questions I posted in #127.”
Unless I intend to force you to comply (and naturally it is impossible for me to do so) it is obvious that you have a choice, and that you can either consent or not consent to the stated plan.
Acceptance and rejection to either method can be done by word (i.e., saying either “yes” or “no”) and/or deed (i.e., simply acting in accordance with the proposed plan or refusing to).
In both #1 and #2 above, I “asked” you for consent, it’s just a matter of how.
The dialog between Mary and Gabriel demonstrates what I described in #2. Because Gabriel would not force Mary to comply, Gabriel presented her with the plan and then waited for her to accept or reject it.
Keep in mind that Gabriel stated that Mary had been chosen to be the mother of the Messiah, but at the time he revealed this, she was not yet the mother. In other words, the plan was not already in effect, it was in the proposal stage. The details of the plan were in the future tense: “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you.” The Gospel of Luke shows the expression of a plan with the presentation of a choice to consent or not consent. So yes, along the lines of what I stated above in #2, Scripture demonstrates Gabriel asking Mary for consent. It just was not in terms of an interrogative statement.
Going back to your response to Shannon9791, the fact that Gabriel did not use the word “may” does nothing to refute my description of the different ways in which consent is sought and gained. Once again, you are insisting that consent is only sought with an interrogative statement (i.e., a question), and yet that is not how it always happens, as I demonstrated in Post #144.
In your above quote to Shannon9791 you are doing what you do over and over again.
If someone presents material that clearly refutes your interpretation, you just ignore it and pretend it never happened.
After all, how on earth could you make a statement like…
“If consent, or permission, was being sought there, then it would have been Gabriel who would have first used the word ‘may’ when confronting Mary”
…knowing full well that I proved in Post #144 that consent can be sought without even doing so in the form of a question?
I have reminded you of Post #144 on a number of occasions. And yet rather than concede that your interpretation of Luke is erroneous, you have repeatedly ignored Post #144 and just keep saying the same thing over and over again, that Mary did not give consent.
You’re reading into the text that which is not there because you’re reading your Marian doctrine into the text.
And what about
all the Protestant scholars I quoted way back in Post #133?
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7296657&postcount
Was it
THEIR intention to read catholic Marian doctrine into the text
TOO???
The literal translation “be it unto me according to your word” is a faith response to what was spoken to her, or “told her” from the Lord (Lk. 1:45), not one of granting permission.
Once again, in this debate you simply type the biblical text, claim that your interpretation is what is literally deduced from the text, and offer no other means of supporting your claim.
If this is the “literal translation”, and if Catholics read Marian doctrine into the text, then once again I challenge you to find
ONE, just
ONE, credible Protestant Scripture scholar or theologian who backs up your interpretation that Mary’s consent was not sought.
THIS IS NOW THE SIXTH TIME THAT I HAVE DIRECTLY CHALLENGED YOU TO DO THIS!
She was not confronted by Gabriel with a question seeking a response of consent. But rather a response of faith. Mary responded according to faith in God’s Word which was spoken to her. Contrast this with Lk. 1:19-20).
And now I will remind you YET AGAIN that I PROVED that Mary’s consent was sought and gained in Post #186. I have challenged you over and over again to give a “point-by-point” refutation of my material therein. And yet you have failed to do so.
So, one more time, here is the link to Post #186.
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7301714&postcount=186