The Importance of Mary in Catholicism

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Now I see where you’re going with this, MD…interesting. Knowing this makes it a little easier to understand why there is such devotion to Mary.
Interesting…you immediately assume that Moondweller is correct in his understanding of Catholic doctrine while a large number of Catholics are trying to correct him.

How do you know with certainty that he is stating anything other than his own fallible interpretation?

Are you as open-minded as you claim to be?
 
Interesting…you immediately assume that Moondweller is correct in his understanding of Catholic doctrine while a large number of Catholics are trying to correct him.

How do you know with certainty that he is stating anything other than his own fallible interpretation?

Are you as open-minded as you claim to be?
That is simple. She assumes MD is correct because she agrees with him. Since we Catholics disagree, we are obviously wrong.
 
Does it concern anyone else here that when the focus is on Mary, it takes away the focus on Jesus?
I understand your concern. The reality is that those who have a vibrant faith that includes honoring Mary are drawn closer to Jesus. That’s what she does…she brings Christ to us and us to Christ. If your concern were to become a reality - that there are those whose focus is so exclusively on Mary that they are somehow led away from Christ, then that would be problem. But your concern is a speculation that has no basis in reality.
If we contemplate fully on the above passage, which is just one very small part of what the Bible says about Christ, why would we need/want our focus to be on someone outside our Triune God?
Only to draw us closer to our Triune God. Scripture reveals God through humanity because there really isnt any other way to accomplish it (apart from private revelation).

Blessings!
 
Now I see where you’re going with this, MD…interesting. Knowing this makes it a little easier to understand why there is such devotion to Mary.
Really? Maybe you can explain it then. Here’s how I see it:
MD has little better to do than come here and criticize the Catholic faith. Why else would he be here for 3 years, go over and over the same tired arguments? He has his opinions of what Catholics believe, but when we tell him, “No, that’s not what we believe”, he insists that he knows better. This thread is a perfect example: He posits a question as if he is searching for an answer: “What is Catholicism without Mary? IOW, is there a Catholic faith without Mary?”
It is, of course, a stupid question. Can he really intend any good to come from it? It is so ambiguous and fraught with complications that it is impossible to answer. What, exactly, is he referring to - Mary from Scripture? Mary from her apparitions? Whether Christ would have been born yet? Whether God would have accomplished the salvation of humanity some other way? What?
No matter what we say - he will disagree with it insisting that he knows our faith better than we do.
But anyhow, a very big part of why Mary is who she is among Catholics is because of the apparitions and the miracles that flowed from them. You probably brush them off as irrelevant, but that is not what happened to those whose lives were touched by them. Anyhow, it has almost nothing to do with his idea of us “needing” Mary in order to receive grace - the idea that seems to resonate with you - that idea is entirely ridiculous.

Blessings!
 
But keep in perspective Mary’s words:Luke 1:38 And Mary said, "Behold, the bondslave of the Lord; may it be done to me according to your word."Not "by me."IOW, without Mary there’s no Catholic religion. Without your “Mother of Divine Grace” (a Catholic moniker, not Biblical) no Divine blessings can be poured out on this world (a Catholic dogma, not Biblical). In the Catholic cosmos, all Divine blessings come through Mary. Is this what Mary meant when she said “…may it be done to me?
MD in Christ,

Are you simply taking some form of perverse pleasure in twisting what is said to you? No one is claiming that Mary “overshadowed herself”, or in some way caused God to choose her, or caused God’s grace. You are deliberately trying to make things different from the reality that is presented to you. Why do that?

Likewise, you have an uncanny knack for setting a double standard for the Catholics on this forum vis-a-vis yourself. Doesn’t it bother you in the least to deny that Mary “accepted” God’s promise through the message of the angel, simply because that exact word “accept” is not in the text even though it is clearly and unmistakeably understood?

Isn’t belief accepting what God asks of us? Don’t Christians evangelizers often say that you must "accept Jesus Christ into your heart as your personal Lord and Savior?

Here are a couple of translations of scripture that should help you see the point a little better as it applies to Mary:
  • Living Bible
    Luke 1:38 Mary said, ``I am the Lord’s servant, and I am willing to do whatever he wants. May everything you said come true.’’ And then the angel disappeared.
– Simple English
Luke 1:38 Mary said, ``I am the servant girl of the Lord . Let what you said happen to me!’’ Then the angel went away.
And now for the double standard. You demand that a particular word be in the text for our point to stand, but when it comes to every thread you’ve ever participated in concerning salvation, you have always exempted yourself from this same requirement when it comes to “faith alone.” Moreover, even though that word “alone” does not appear in Paul’s writings and is irrefutably denied by the apostle James, you still refuse to give up your own exemption from what you require of the Catholics on this forum. That kind of thing is simply ridiculous and unacceptable.

God bless.
 
MD in Christ,

Once again, I’ll ask you.

Can you have a gospel of Luke without Mary?

Please answer that question with a direct and on point answer.

Thank you and God bless.
 
Interesting…you immediately assume that Moondweller is correct in his understanding of Catholic doctrine while a large number of Catholics are trying to correct him.

How do you know with certainty that he is stating anything other than his own fallible interpretation?

Are you as open-minded as you claim to be?
WHAT? :eek:,Moondweller’s interpretations of Sacred Scripture are fallible? Please tell me you’re kidding!

Hasn’t anyone been listening? MD has the gift to interpret ALL of Scripture. Just ask him, he’ll tell you
 
MD in Christ,

Once again, I’ll ask you.

Can you have a gospel of Luke without Mary?

Please answer that question with a direct and on point answer.

Thank you and God bless.
We ALL have been waiting for Moon to answer our questions directly and to the point. Seems either he can’t or won’t.

DO NOT HOLD YOUR BREATH!
 
MD in Christ,

Once again, I’ll ask you.

Can you have a gospel of Luke without Mary?

Please answer that question with a direct and on point answer.

Thank you and God bless.
We ALL have been waiting for Moon to answer our questions directly and to the point. Seems either he can’t or won’t.

DO NOT HOLD YOUR BREATH!
This is the sort of thing that I was talking about in my recent criticism of the kind of “scholarship” that MD has been displaying throughout this thread.
Remember the kinds of posts that I made a few days ago like this one:

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7301714&postcount=186

Therein I concretely demonstrated that his interpretation of Luke cannot be correct, and repeatedly invited him to attempt a point-by-point rebuttal of my material. Likewise, he repeatedly refused to do so.

He did respond, though, in at least some manner.
Here are the links to our correspondence about it, and people can judge for themselves the quality of MD’s responses to my material:

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7303953&postcount=238
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7304035&postcount=242
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7304570&postcount=245
*(and my final 3-part response from a week ago which, so far, MD has completely ignored)…
*forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7304890&postcount=257
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7304892&postcount=258
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7304894&postcount=259

If this was not an internet forum but rather a game of dodge ball, then MD would be the winner, hands down, because he can dodge questions and dance around rebuttals (without confronting them) like no one I’ve ever seen. But this is not a game of dodge ball, but rather an apologetics forum, where debate is supposed to be conducted in a scholarly way. When one examines the 10 days worth of interactions between MD and the various Catholic participants, it is painfully obvious that he either has no idea what it means to engage in scholarly debate, or is intentionally avoiding doing so.
 
I am familiar with all of your points. However, you seem to have missed the essential element of the Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception; namely, that God, by a singular act of mercy, protected Mary from inheriting the sin of Adam from the moment of her conception within her mother’s womb. Mary WAS saved by God, but she was saved FROM inheriting a sinful nature in the first place.
In such a case, the word “saved” would be totally inappropriate. “Spared” would be the appropriate word. If she was “spared” from original sin and then lived a sinless life, then she was not ever in need of a Savior. But she herself testified to the contrary in theopneustos Scripture.
It has already been demonstrated that numerous exceptions to the “all” in “all have sinned” can be listed, and obviously, there is no hint that Romans 3:23 specifically includes Mary in the mind of Paul. If you had stopped him in mid-sentence and asked, “Whoa, Paul…you don’t mean that infants have sinned, do you?”, he would have said, “Of course not.”
To the contrary. Rom. 3:23 doesn’t state “…all HAVE sinned.” But rather, according to the Greek, “…ALL SINNED (aorist, not perfect tense, i.e., in Adam) and (continually, present tense) fall short of the glory of God.”
Well, what about those who are mentally incapable of sin?"
It’s a non-issue here. ALL men were “made sinners” by ONE act of ONE man (Rom. 5:19). You may not like it, but that’s Divine revelation. You may not even believe it, nonetheless, that’s Divine Revelation.
You might have asked about Mary, but I have no idea how he would have answered you, because I don’t know what he knew or did not know at that time.
He knew That “…ALL sinned (in Adam) and (continually)* fall short of the glory of God*.” His statement would include Mary. NOWHERE in Scripture does Paul or any other writer teach otherwise.

True Christian doctrine is built on Divine Revelation (what God has revealed), never on man’s speculations. It’s what separates true Christianity from all the religions on earth. IOW, it’s not man-made, it’s Divinely revealed. That’s why true Christianity is faith based.
 
Likewise, you have an uncanny knack for setting a double standard for the Catholics on this forum vis-a-vis yourself. Doesn’t it bother you in the least to deny that Mary “accepted” God’s promise through the message of the angel, simply because that exact word “accept” is not in the text even though it is clearly and unmistakeably understood?
You needed to read my previous posts, Pax. I have no problem with the word “accept.” She accepted (synonymous with believed) “that there would be a fulfillment of what had been spoken to her by the Lord” (Lk. 1:45). “Accept” is not “consent.” “Accept” is rooted in belief. Go back and read my previous posts on this.
Isn’t belief accepting what God asks of us?
No. Not “asks of us.” But what has been revealed to us, even spoken to us regarding the Person and sacrificial work of Jesus Christ.
Don’t Christians evangelizers often say that you must "accept Jesus Christ into your heart as your personal Lord and Savior?
They do. It’s synonymous with personally believing in what had been “spoken to them” concerning Jesus Christ and salvation: gifted through faith in Him alone.
 
MD in Christ…
Doesn’t it bother you in the least to deny that Mary “accepted” God’s promise through the message of the angel, simply because that exact word “accept” is not in the text even though it is clearly and unmistakeably understood?

Isn’t belief accepting what God asks of us? Don’t Christians evangelizers often say that you must "accept Jesus Christ into your heart as your personal Lord and Savior?
Accept” is not “consent.” “Accept” is rooted in belief. Go back and read my previous posts on this.
Oh for cryin’ out loud…

“Accept” = “Consent”

PROVEN by me in this thread five days ago!

Click on this link:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7300452&postcount=162

And, MD, I might add, it is yet another post that you have not tried to refute.

Anyway, it looks like your argument over this particular subject is not simply with Pax but with Dictionary.com (and the rest of the English speaking world for that matter).
 
Mary consented. End of story. I have talked to Protestants and none have a problem with this. MARY CONSENTED. “LET it be done to me according to your word.” She believe, consented and it was fulfilled. YOU ARE WRONG. Maybe you might actually believe us if you actually looked at our arguments without the presupposition that we are wrong.

And another thing… “Spared”? Is this the best you can do, Moondweller? I am always surprised at the absurd things you say that go against the Church. You change our words so that it goes against the Bible (even though spared means about the same thing as saved anyway). Mary was “spared” (to put it in your terms) from sin by God. At the risk of sounding redundant, Mary needed a Savior! You FAIL to understand this. WHY? I have said it many times. Others have said it many times. Why is this so hard to understand? Oh, that is right… Because if we believe that Mary needed a Savior, we would be right, so to make us wrong, you tell us that we ought to think (by our made-up dogmas) that Mary did not need a Savior since we think she was sinless. You should try reading our posts. You might actually understand what we believe.

I can tell you are hopelessly struggling to make the Church wrong. Otherwise, you would have spared us from your previous argument. “All have sinned” has exceptions. We should not presume that everything is literal in the Bible. Jesus was the Son of Man. Surely in your idea of Romans 3:23, he is included. I am talking about just Romans. I know you know Jesus knew no sin (before you start assuming things, Catholics know this too). But in Romans 3:23, Paul never excludes anybody. But clearly, there are exceptions.
 
Mary consented. End of story. I have talked to Protestants and none have a problem with this. MARY CONSENTED.
I doubt if MD will be swayed by this, Gregg.
After all, several days ago I posted a list of quotes from the publications of credible Protestant theologians expressing our exact same belief that Mary consented.

Here is a link to that post:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7296657&postcount=133

(Notice how even John Wesley uses the exact same word, “consent”. Also particularly damaging to MD’s interpretation is Dr. Utley’s elaboration on Luke. He is a Protestant Scripture and biblical language expert who teaches at East Texas Baptist University)

And here are my posts which defend that material in light of MD’s responses to it:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7300450&postcount=161
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7300452&postcount=162
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7300453&postcount=163

As usual, he has made no attempt to refute any of these last three posts.
I asked MD to explain how his notion of belief meshed with Dr. Utley’s statement that Mary “cooperated” with God’s plan. In other words, how can belief involve cooperation without likewise involving consent? But that is just one more in a long line of unanswered questions.

Furthermore, he has not met my challenge to quote ONE credible Scripture scholar or theologian who also makes his assertion that Mary did not consent. I presented that challenge way back in Post #119 (forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7295475&postcount=119) and he has been reminded of this specific challenge (by me or someone else) in Posts #127, 133, 163 & 195.

So that makes for a total of FIVE times over a course of nearly a week that he was specifically asked to give JUST ONE quote from a credible Scripture scholar or theologian backing up his interpretation!

MD has completely ignored this challenge. But rather admit that no one agrees with him, he continues to post his absurd idea that Luke’s description of Mary does not involve consent as if it is something that is obviously true.
 
You needed to read my previous posts, Pax. I have no problem with the word “accept.” She accepted (synonymous with believed) “that there would be a fulfillment of what had been spoken to her by the Lord” (Lk. 1:45). “Accept” is not “consent.” “Accept” is rooted in belief. Go back and read my previous posts on this.No. Not “asks of us.” But what has been revealed to us, even spoken to us regarding the Person and sacrificial work of Jesus Christ.They do. It’s synonymous with personally believing in what had been “spoken to them” concerning Jesus Christ and salvation: gifted through faith in Him alone.
MD in Christ,

Accept or consent…take your pick…you’re still in the same bind because they are essential synonyms. Try your online dictionary and you will find this:

con·sent (kn-snt)
intr.v. con·sent·ed, con·sent·ing, con·sents
  1. To give assent, as to the proposal of another; agree. See Synonyms at assent.
  2. Archaic To be of the same mind or opinion.
    n.
  3. Acceptance or approval of what is planned or done by another; acquiescence. See Synonyms at permission.
  4. Agreement as to opinion or a course of action: She was chosen by common consent to speak for the group.
You are once again attempting to twist and spin. Sorry but you’re not slipping the noose, and everybody on this thread has shown your position on this to be untenable.

Now…please answer the question:

Can there be a gospel of Luke without Mary?

Thanks in advance for at least the third time.

God bless.
 
In such a case, the word “saved” would be totally inappropriate. “Spared” would be the appropriate word. If she was “spared” from original sin and then lived a sinless life, then she was not ever in need of a Savior. But she herself testified to the contrary in theopneustos Scripture.To the contrary. Rom. 3:23 doesn’t state “…all HAVE sinned.” But rather, according to the Greek, "…ALL SINNED (aorist, not perfect tense, i.e., in Adam) and (continually, present tense) fall short of the glory of God."It’s a non-issue here. ALL men were “made sinners” by ONE act of ONE man (Rom. 5:19). You may not like it, but that’s Divine revelation. You may not even believe it, nonetheless, that’s Divine Revelation.He knew That “…ALL sinned (in Adam) and (continually)* fall short of the glory of God*.” His statement would include Mary. NOWHERE in Scripture does Paul or any other writer teach otherwise.

True Christian doctrine is built on Divine Revelation (what God has revealed), never on man’s speculations. It’s what separates true Christianity from all the religions on earth. IOW, it’s not man-made, it’s Divinely revealed. That’s why true Christianity is faith based.
Scripture repeatedly shows that “all” does not always, necessarily, or absolutely mean “every single one”. Thus, your argument is flawed. Here is a list:
http://www.scripturecatholic.com/blessed_virgin_mary.html#the_bvm-IX

But the root of your argument has more to do with the doctrine of the Incarnation. If God interviened when Jesus was incarnated to make him sinless, (apart from Mary’s alleged sinfulness) how does that make him fully human?

You can ramble off all kinds of scriptures to support your understanding of the Incarnation, and that is all well and good. We know them too, but I don’t think you can come up with an adequate answer. Where did Jesus get his full humanity from?

A thoroughly satisfactory explanation for the sinless humanity of Jesus Christ in terms of theology and biology is the Immaculate Conception. This is what makes your understanding of the full humanity of Jesus potentially, if not practically, prone to Christological errors. If God interviened at the moment of the Incarnation to make Jesus sinless, (which, I assume, is your belief) then you hold Jesus to be humanoid, and not fully human, no matter how many bible verses you quote. Then His lineage doesn’t mean anything. If God interviened at the moment of the Incarnation because Mary was a sinner, and God magically made Jesus sinless, then why does scripture bother with lineage if Christ is humanoid?

If none of the reformers taught that Mary was a sinner, or had other children, and if these ideas have been made popular only in the last 10-20 years, how can you claim “True Christian doctrine is built on Divine Revelation (what God has revealed), never on man’s speculations.” ???
 
MD, why don’t you answer this question?
You should know by now that MD isn’t here to answer questions, he is here to make statements to either further his evangelical agenda or to call the Catholic views into question. Keep in mind that this is very valuable to us, because it gives us a forum to answer his assertions. The truth is apparent to those that read here, even if not to Moondweller…
 
You should know by now that MD isn’t here to answer questions, he is here to make statements to either further his evangelical agenda or to call the Catholic views into question. Keep in mind that this is very valuable to us, because it gives us a forum to answer his assertions. The truth is apparent to those that read here, even if not to Moondweller…
Amen to that Paul.
 
You know I should thank MD.

So many of you here are so knowledgeable about the faith and you answer so well that anyone happening on this thread could learn a lot.

I have. 👍
 
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