H
hansard
Guest
This has, no doubt, been addressed before, but anyway…
Was transubstantiation achieved at the Last Supper, or were Jesus’ words a precursor to the sacrament? Did he really mean (words to the effect of) “From here after, this is my body…”? Like, in saying “Do this in memory of me,” did he really postpone the miracle for the next time the ceremony was done, after his death, when he was, technically, a memory to them?
It’s long puzzled me, as it seems a stretch for the bread and wine to become his body and blood, especially as those items were already present in the form of… well, in the form of Jesus himself.
And a further question, if no-one minds (which, of course, you don’t): when the early church “performed” the Eucharist, what form of words would they have used?
The Gospels were some years away from being written, and there would have been no formal or universally-recognised text from the Last Supper, and very little church tradition to call upon.
I suppose they must have relied on oral tradition?
Was transubstantiation achieved at the Last Supper, or were Jesus’ words a precursor to the sacrament? Did he really mean (words to the effect of) “From here after, this is my body…”? Like, in saying “Do this in memory of me,” did he really postpone the miracle for the next time the ceremony was done, after his death, when he was, technically, a memory to them?
It’s long puzzled me, as it seems a stretch for the bread and wine to become his body and blood, especially as those items were already present in the form of… well, in the form of Jesus himself.
And a further question, if no-one minds (which, of course, you don’t): when the early church “performed” the Eucharist, what form of words would they have used?
The Gospels were some years away from being written, and there would have been no formal or universally-recognised text from the Last Supper, and very little church tradition to call upon.
I suppose they must have relied on oral tradition?