T
Trevor_Stamm
Guest
Ave Maria,
I’d like to see what the community here thinks about the Incarnation with the Thomistic thesis and the Franciscan thesis.
As St. Aquinas believed the Incarnation would not have happened if man did not sin, that Christ was begotten to Redeem mankind for Adam and Eve’s actions.
And Blessed John Duns Scotus believed the Incarnation would have happened regardless if man have sinned or not, that Jesus was the masterpiece of God and willed first.
I’m inclined to Bl. Scotus for five reasons. One, the Thomistic reason indirectly implies that Jesus and Mary owe their existence to sin, that does not sit very well with me IMO. Secondly, in John 1:1-3 it appears this supports the Scotistic stance, that Jesus was willed first. Thirdly, the Franciscan thesis here implies that since Christ is the materpiece of God, then it is Christ that we desire to be like, not to desire what Adam and Eve were before sin. Fourthly, God being omniscience knew sin would be fall man before creating man, thus He willed his masterpiece first which is justified in my fifth reason. Fifthly, Jesus is God the Son, God is atemporal and actively exists in all time (temporal and atemporal). E.g. we do not exist yet in the second (or attosecond, or however small you want to reduce this too) that is going to pass in time, we only exist in the present time, but God being atemporal is not bound by time and is therefore actively existing in all seconds, minutes, years, etc… that will come to pass. As Jesus is God the Son, He exists atemporal as well and therefore was existing before His Incarnation, though not bodily but as the Word.
Thoughts?
I’d like to see what the community here thinks about the Incarnation with the Thomistic thesis and the Franciscan thesis.
As St. Aquinas believed the Incarnation would not have happened if man did not sin, that Christ was begotten to Redeem mankind for Adam and Eve’s actions.
And Blessed John Duns Scotus believed the Incarnation would have happened regardless if man have sinned or not, that Jesus was the masterpiece of God and willed first.
I’m inclined to Bl. Scotus for five reasons. One, the Thomistic reason indirectly implies that Jesus and Mary owe their existence to sin, that does not sit very well with me IMO. Secondly, in John 1:1-3 it appears this supports the Scotistic stance, that Jesus was willed first. Thirdly, the Franciscan thesis here implies that since Christ is the materpiece of God, then it is Christ that we desire to be like, not to desire what Adam and Eve were before sin. Fourthly, God being omniscience knew sin would be fall man before creating man, thus He willed his masterpiece first which is justified in my fifth reason. Fifthly, Jesus is God the Son, God is atemporal and actively exists in all time (temporal and atemporal). E.g. we do not exist yet in the second (or attosecond, or however small you want to reduce this too) that is going to pass in time, we only exist in the present time, but God being atemporal is not bound by time and is therefore actively existing in all seconds, minutes, years, etc… that will come to pass. As Jesus is God the Son, He exists atemporal as well and therefore was existing before His Incarnation, though not bodily but as the Word.
Thoughts?