F
fhansen
Guest
Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness. 1 John 3:4Hmm… no, they illustrate the point that “Jews and Greeks alike … are all under the domination of sin” (Rom 3:9).
Well, yes, it tells us that there’s no distinction. I’m not quite sure what you’re getting at though. Maybe the Catechism can help here. All men have the natural law written in their hearts, and are therefore accountable in any case, and this, I believe, is what St Paul is getting at in Rom 2 & 3:You can nuance “all have sinned” as “all have broken the law”, but to do that, you’d have to create a distinction that separates the two groups: Jews have broken the law (of Moses) and Gentiles have broken the law (found in Scripture). The point of Romans 3:9ff, I’d assert, isn’t that there’s a distinction between Jew and Greek, but rather, that there’s no distinction: each have sinned (without, in this passage, detailing how they’ve done so); each have fallen short of God’s expectation.
**1952 There are different expressions of the moral law, all of them interrelated: eternal law - the source, in God, of all law; natural law; revealed law, comprising the Old Law and the New Law, or Law of the Gospel; finally, civil and ecclesiastical laws.
1956 The natural law, present in the heart of each man and established by reason, is universal in its precepts and its authority extends to all men. It expresses the dignity of the person and determines the basis for his fundamental rights and duties:
For there is a true law: right reason. It is in conformity with nature, is diffused among all men, and is immutable and eternal; its orders summon to duty; its prohibitions turn away from offense . . . . To replace it with a contrary law is a sacrilege; failure to apply even one of its provisions is forbidden; no one can abrogate it entirely.9 **