F
FishyPete
Guest
So I came across some websites (mostly Jewish) claiming that our Lord simply created the “Lord’s Prayer” from using already known and said Jewish prayer pieces. i.e. many (if not all) of the parts of the Lord’s Prayer have a parallel in the Talmud and other Rabbinic writings.
My intial response was:
1. well, of course he used well known Jewish words and phrases and prayer parts, he was Jewish after all, what else would he use? Canadian prayer parts?
And then
**2. I thought, but isn’t the Talmud and other Rabinic writings post New Testament or at the very least some is concurrent and therefore could have been influenced by Jesus? **
Why should Jesus have been influenced by Jewish prayer parts, when it could have been the other way around?
And then
See here for the Jewish claim:
jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/10112-lord-s-prayer-the
How do I refute this or understand this from a CATHOLIC perspective? I’ve been researching for a while, and cant come to any conclusion…??
Yours In Christ,
FishyPete.
My intial response was:
1. well, of course he used well known Jewish words and phrases and prayer parts, he was Jewish after all, what else would he use? Canadian prayer parts?
And then
**2. I thought, but isn’t the Talmud and other Rabinic writings post New Testament or at the very least some is concurrent and therefore could have been influenced by Jesus? **
Why should Jesus have been influenced by Jewish prayer parts, when it could have been the other way around?
And then
- I thought most of our Lords Prayer came from parallels in the old testament, which would explain them being used by Jesus AND the Talmud and Rabbinic sources.
See here for the Jewish claim:
jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/10112-lord-s-prayer-the
How do I refute this or understand this from a CATHOLIC perspective? I’ve been researching for a while, and cant come to any conclusion…??
Yours In Christ,
FishyPete.