T
ThomasDoubter
Guest
Good to be back on here after some recent computer problems! Namely, affording a new one after the last one drew it’s last breath!!!
Anyway, I was recently having a theological conversation with some protestant friends of mine, when the subject of the Lord’s Prayer came up. I questioned why, in their church, it was not a prayer the congregation said in their services. They obviously allocated time for prayer, but it was on an individual, private basis.
Their argument was that the Lord’s Prayer is just an example of how we are meant to pray. But when I read Matthew 6:9, it seems pretty conclusive to me.
''So you should pray like this:
How is that interpreted as an example? This is one of several differences of opinion I could give, regarding our discussions together. They generally believe that I was not taught to read and understand scripture, as a result of my Catholic upbringing. That it was never available to me, and thus I have not the receptive qualities needed to understand it fully!
I would argue that there is no basis for assuming this is just an example. It is a definite statement in my view. Am I being inflexible here?
Am I wrong entrusting the tenets of my faith to theologians, or should I be trying to second guess it myself? (Okay, now I’m being facetious…)
God Bless all!
Anyway, I was recently having a theological conversation with some protestant friends of mine, when the subject of the Lord’s Prayer came up. I questioned why, in their church, it was not a prayer the congregation said in their services. They obviously allocated time for prayer, but it was on an individual, private basis.
Their argument was that the Lord’s Prayer is just an example of how we are meant to pray. But when I read Matthew 6:9, it seems pretty conclusive to me.
''So you should pray like this:
How is that interpreted as an example? This is one of several differences of opinion I could give, regarding our discussions together. They generally believe that I was not taught to read and understand scripture, as a result of my Catholic upbringing. That it was never available to me, and thus I have not the receptive qualities needed to understand it fully!
I would argue that there is no basis for assuming this is just an example. It is a definite statement in my view. Am I being inflexible here?
Am I wrong entrusting the tenets of my faith to theologians, or should I be trying to second guess it myself? (Okay, now I’m being facetious…)
God Bless all!