B
BIB_MT
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OK, so I posted quite awhile ago asking about what is considered sin between husband and wife, sexually. I thought I had a good understanding of what is and isn’t permissible. Then, last night I stumbled upon this article that contradicted what I know to be popular Catholic belief.
TMI Warning: My specific question was if it is okay to use oral or hand stimulation as foreplay, so long as the husband finishes the traditional way. I thought it was okay the last time I asked this question. The article I read said it is NOT. So now I’m confused.
I can link to the full article (catholicplanet.com/CCSE/marriage-sins.htm), but here are some excerpts from it:
"Certain kinds of sexual acts are intrinsically evil and are therefore always immoral, regardless of circumstances, intention, or purpose.
Examples of intrinsically disordered sexual acts include: masturbation, homosexual acts, any sexual acts with more than two participants, oral sex, anal sex, manual sex, sexual acts involving objects or devices, etc.
These sexual acts can never be justified regardless of circumstances, intention, or purpose. These sexual acts are unnatural because they violate the natural law. The human person was designed by God so that sexual relations would consist in acts of genital-to-genital intercourse, open to life, between one man and one woman. Other kinds of sexual acts are contrary to this intention and purpose of God, which He designed within human nature.
If you know that it is an unnatural sexual act, then you know that it is wrong. You do not need know the circumstances, or the intention, or the end result. You can be certain that it is wrong simply because it is an unnatural sexual act. Unnatural sexual acts are always wrong, even if done with a good intention or purpose. Each and every unnatural sexual act is always objectively gravely immoral, even if it is preceded by, combined with, or followed by an act of natural marital sexual relations. These acts are immoral, even if such acts are between a man and a woman who are married to each another. Always means always. There are no exceptions.
By masturbation is to be understood the deliberate stimulation of the genital organs in order to derive sexual pleasure. “Both the Magisterium of the Church, in the course of a constant tradition, and the moral sense of the faithful have been in no doubt and have firmly maintained that masturbation is an intrinsically and gravely disordered action.” (Catechism of the Catholic Church, n. 2352)
So, for example, a husband cannot deliberately stimulate the genital organs of his wife in order to give her sexual pleasure, for such an action is defined within the Catechism as a type of sexual act which is “intrinsically and gravely disordered.” The masturbation of another person is no less immoral than the masturbation of oneself. And regardless of whether this “deliberate stimulation of the genital organs” is done with the hand or the mouth or an object, it remains essentially the same kind of act, one which is intrinsically and gravely disordered, according to the Catechism."
&
"Is oral, anal, or manual stimulation permissible as an act of foreplay, if it is completed with sexual climax during an act of natural marital relations open to life?
No. Each sexual act must be considered separately as to its morality. These sexual acts are unnatural, and not open to life, and intrinsically disordered, therefore they can never be justified, even if they are not completed with sexual climax, or even if they are completed with sexual climax during natural marital relations, regardless of whether they precede, coincide with, or follow an act of natural marital relations open to life.
If an act is intrinsically disordered and always gravely immoral when completed by itself, then it must still be intrinsically disordered and always gravely immoral even when it is only partial or is combined with an act which is moral. The morality of the latter act does not change the morality of the former act. This applies regardless of whether the acts concern sexuality or some other area of morality."
This is all concerning to me because, if true, we both need to head to the Confessional. Any help?
TMI Warning: My specific question was if it is okay to use oral or hand stimulation as foreplay, so long as the husband finishes the traditional way. I thought it was okay the last time I asked this question. The article I read said it is NOT. So now I’m confused.
I can link to the full article (catholicplanet.com/CCSE/marriage-sins.htm), but here are some excerpts from it:
"Certain kinds of sexual acts are intrinsically evil and are therefore always immoral, regardless of circumstances, intention, or purpose.
Examples of intrinsically disordered sexual acts include: masturbation, homosexual acts, any sexual acts with more than two participants, oral sex, anal sex, manual sex, sexual acts involving objects or devices, etc.
These sexual acts can never be justified regardless of circumstances, intention, or purpose. These sexual acts are unnatural because they violate the natural law. The human person was designed by God so that sexual relations would consist in acts of genital-to-genital intercourse, open to life, between one man and one woman. Other kinds of sexual acts are contrary to this intention and purpose of God, which He designed within human nature.
If you know that it is an unnatural sexual act, then you know that it is wrong. You do not need know the circumstances, or the intention, or the end result. You can be certain that it is wrong simply because it is an unnatural sexual act. Unnatural sexual acts are always wrong, even if done with a good intention or purpose. Each and every unnatural sexual act is always objectively gravely immoral, even if it is preceded by, combined with, or followed by an act of natural marital sexual relations. These acts are immoral, even if such acts are between a man and a woman who are married to each another. Always means always. There are no exceptions.
By masturbation is to be understood the deliberate stimulation of the genital organs in order to derive sexual pleasure. “Both the Magisterium of the Church, in the course of a constant tradition, and the moral sense of the faithful have been in no doubt and have firmly maintained that masturbation is an intrinsically and gravely disordered action.” (Catechism of the Catholic Church, n. 2352)
So, for example, a husband cannot deliberately stimulate the genital organs of his wife in order to give her sexual pleasure, for such an action is defined within the Catechism as a type of sexual act which is “intrinsically and gravely disordered.” The masturbation of another person is no less immoral than the masturbation of oneself. And regardless of whether this “deliberate stimulation of the genital organs” is done with the hand or the mouth or an object, it remains essentially the same kind of act, one which is intrinsically and gravely disordered, according to the Catechism."
&
"Is oral, anal, or manual stimulation permissible as an act of foreplay, if it is completed with sexual climax during an act of natural marital relations open to life?
No. Each sexual act must be considered separately as to its morality. These sexual acts are unnatural, and not open to life, and intrinsically disordered, therefore they can never be justified, even if they are not completed with sexual climax, or even if they are completed with sexual climax during natural marital relations, regardless of whether they precede, coincide with, or follow an act of natural marital relations open to life.
If an act is intrinsically disordered and always gravely immoral when completed by itself, then it must still be intrinsically disordered and always gravely immoral even when it is only partial or is combined with an act which is moral. The morality of the latter act does not change the morality of the former act. This applies regardless of whether the acts concern sexuality or some other area of morality."
This is all concerning to me because, if true, we both need to head to the Confessional. Any help?