S
sambos671
Guest
Of Course Christians are not flexible on this point of discussion! What would you say if I said the Jews are non comprimising about their God being the only God? What would you think if I said Moses did really say the Shema Yisrael? What if I told you that Moses actually didn’t say 80% of the things the Torah say he did? What if I told you that what Moses said and did was modified by Joshua? What if I said that Moses taugh the uneducated hebrew slaves many things the Egyptians actually taught?. What if I said many of the things that he makes into law was stolen from the Egyptian priesthood? That many rituals were taken from the Egyptian Mott? Or that the angelic creatures covering the Ark of the Covenant wasn’t the seraphim but the goddess seraph and her reflection? That Joshua not having been given the education Moses was had to modify what moses taught in Torah to give an importance to the Hebrews didn’t really possess? Would you be flexible about that? I doubt it.**Sambos, I recommend you my thread “The Alleged Sons of God.” You will understand pretty well that in the case of Jesus if he was, like thousands of other children, the result of a rape, he could be, as he was, a religious Jew. “Orthodox” is not a word of the First Century. Therefore, the choice you submit me to, between virgin birth or incarnation has been neutralized. You will also understand why Mary could not be put to death, as none of the other mothers was. Special deliberation from the Sanhedrin.
Oh yes, with all my sincerity, and to save Joseph and Mary from Agnostic smearing, I defend that Jesus was a legitimate descendant of David by being a biological son of Joseph’s. But as I have said before, I don’t blame the Agnostics for their irreverence. I blame Christians for their intransigence**
You seem to bypass Lewis view that Jesus could only be as claimed God, or he would have to be a lunitic or liar by saying that the NT itself was a lie. But the question remains. If Jesus were as you said, Just a religious Jew and Paul made up the rest why would their be followers of his after his death proclaiming his life? If Paul is soley responsible for “replacement theology”, which I think it grinds you that gentiles claim to be equally God’s chosen, then why did Peter initiate inclusion of Gentiles? Why did Luke who did not “hang out” with Paul indicate this same theology. In those days they did not have telephones and could not get to places quickly. So when you see the same teaching being spread by all the apostles simultaniously then you have to note that it was what is originally taught. There would have obvously been a Pauline school distinguised apart from a James school or a Peter schools as you have with all the types of thought in Judaism. But thats not what you see. You see a united front.