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Psychotheosophy
Guest
In the scriptures you quoted,**My pleasure. I am sure you are familiar with Isaiah 53. That’s about the Suffering Servant, who is the Messiah. Now, if you read Isaiah 41:8,9; 44:1,2,21; and 45:4, you will see that Isaiah identifies that Servant with Israel by name,
so that no one will need to assume that he was Jesus.
Here is another one. I am sure also that you are familiar with the expression “The Anointed of the Lord.” This is what Messiah means. Now, if you read Habakkuk 3:13,
you will see that, “The Lord comes to save His People; His anointed one.” It means that
the People, rather than the individual, is the Anointed of the Lord.
And if you have heard that the Messiah is also to be known as the son of God, there
will be no problem. If you read Exodus 4:22,23, you will see that “Israel is My son; so,
let My son go, so that he may serve Me,” says the Lord.
There are many other indications of being the People the Suffering Servant of the Lord, especially if you read Psalms 44:11-26. And here, the Psalmist uses no symbolism of the pronoun in the singular. He uses the plural to avoid any confusion that he is talking about the People and not the individual.
For now, I think it’s enough, because for the one who is easy to understand, half word suffices.**
The Suffering Servant is named “Jacob” and “Israel”
Why do we only use “Israel?”
From Isaiah 53:10
The Suffering Servant,
“…makes himself an offering for sin…”
How does Israel make itself an offering for sin?