The NIV and Matthew 1:25

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Indeed, nobody is disputing that. That is why the question doesn’t matter.
This post is more of a discussion of the Greek and the translation the NIV used.

Perhaps I should have mentioned that in the first post.
 
In any case, I now know that “know” and “consummate” are the same word in Greek.
Well, they’re not the same word. “Know” speaks to sexual intercourse in some contexts. It’s not that when you see “know” in the Bible, it means “intercourse”; sometimes, though, it can be used this way.

And, when it’s used this way, it doesn’t necessarily mean “consummate” (i.e., the first time for a married couple). However, in the NIV, they decided to use that word because it fit the context of the passage that you’ve mentioned.

Hope this helps…!

G.
 
Well, they’re not the same word. “Know” speaks to sexual intercourse in some contexts. It’s not that when you see “know” in the Bible, it means “intercourse”; sometimes, though, it can be used this way.

And, when it’s used this way, it doesn’t necessarily mean “consummate” (i.e., the first time for a married couple). However, in the NIV, they decided to use that word because it fit the context of the passage that you’ve mentioned.

Hope this helps…!

G.
It does. I understand.

I guess I’m waiting for someone to put the “Protestant” stamp on it.

I used to love the NIV when I was Protestant. Now I’m slowly learning that its not always reliable…
 
And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.

“knew” refers to Joseph not understanding the great dignity of Mary until after the birth of Jesus, when he realised how honourable and worthy she was to carry in her womb he whom the world could not contain. Joseph never approached Mary carnally but cared for her and lived a celibate life as head of the Holy family.

St Joseph, pray for us.
Jesus, Mary, I love you, save souls
 
The NIV-CE is a very respectable translation.
I was not aware that the New International Version had a Catholic Edition. I’m having a little trouble finding a reference to it elsewhere.

Are you sure you didn’t mean the RSV-CE?
 
It does. I understand.

I guess I’m waiting for someone to put the “Protestant” stamp on it.

I used to love the NIV when I was Protestant. Now I’m slowly learning that its not always reliable…
Jeff Cavins and Scott Hahn use the NIV-CE for their Bible studies.
 
I was not aware that the New International Version had a Catholic Edition. I’m having a little trouble finding a reference to it elsewhere.

Are you sure you didn’t mean the RSV-CE?
OOPS :o
 
=Mgray82;10067745]The NIV translations says;
But he did not consummate their marriage until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus. (Matthew 1:25 NIV)
The Douay Rheims reads;
And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. (Matthew 1:25 DRA)
Obviously this is a classic case for Mary’s perpetual virginity. Is there any validity in the translation for “consummate”? Or is this the typical Protestant way of editing the bible…
Answers? Thoughts?
Well done!😃

Here’s the DEAL.
  1. God is Perfect; agreed?
Has to be in order to “be God.”

**2Sam.22: 31 **" This God – his way is perfect; the promise of the LORD proves true;
he is a shield for all those who take refuge in him>’
  1. God is constant and does not change EVER
Mal.3: 6 “For I the LORD do not change; …”
  1. Jesus Christ IS God
    Lk. 1: 31-35 “Behold thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and shalt bring forth a son; and thou shalt call his name Jesus. He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the most High; and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of David his father; and he shall reign in the house of Jacob for ever. And of his kingdom there shall be no end. And Mary said to the angel: How shall this be done, because I know not man? And the angel answering, said to her: **The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the most High shall overshadow thee. And therefore also the Holy which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God/B].”
So, because God is Perfect and consistantly Perfect and choose to become Incarnate “God /man”; and because God literally cannot tolerate imperfection; Mary is an absolute sense too had to be “pre-Perfected” through the Meits of her Son Jesus.👍

Time is not an issues because “time” exist by and for humanity. For God everything is in the “present time.”

The miracle is not singular:

Mary was impregnated by God the Holy Spirit {miracle 1]

Mary HAD to be perfected BUT God could force her to be so. Therefore Mary’s “freewill”
could not be violated; so Mary freely choose to in every possible way, Obey God’s desires for her. She did this perfectly

[Miracle 2] Was Christ merits being credited to and through Mary before She even conceived Jesus:)

Summation:

Becasue Christ is Perfect [and we too must be perfect or perfected through Purgatory to gain entrance into Christ Divien Presence], in an absolute sense Mary HAD to be perfect so that Christ would remain Perfect God and be a “perfect man.” he absolutely could permit Himself to be a “Perfect God , and an (name removed by moderator)erfect man.” Theologically Impossible:thumbsup:

Luke 6:40 “The disciple is not above his master: but every one shall be perfect, if he be as his master.”

Matt.5: 48 You, therefore, must be perfect, as your heavenly Father is perfect“.

2 Timothy 3:17 “That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.”**
 
It matters when we are trying to defend our beliefs about Mary ever-virgin to fundamentalists. Some of them seem so focused on Mary and Joseph having children together after Jesus, I wonder if it’s not a dogma for them!
I know nothing of fundamentalists. I only know about Lutheran and Methodist, and is why I phrased my initial reply as such. If you read it that is.

off subject; I do know that other churches I’ve attended with friends are of a different theology of which was obvious from just the one attendance. I’ve politely refused return visits to the same. Of other things, having a dogma for other children wouldn’t surprise me, but here on these forums is the only place I’ve encountered mention of it.
 
It does. I understand.

I guess I’m waiting for someone to put the “Protestant” stamp on it.

I used to love the NIV when I was Protestant. Now I’m slowly learning that its not always reliable…
It has ‘stamped’ itself if you read the introductions, etc. It was formed by the Biblical Society by committee.
 
The Pope, what a surprise, insists in his new book that the Virgin Birth is a core Christian belief: “This is,” he says, “a scandal for the modern spirit”.

Pope Benedict XVI

If Jesus had brothers and sisters then Mary’s virgin birth of Jesus would be in question since, if this were true, then she may have had children before Jesus and this would throw the virgin birth of Jesus into question. Then Isaiah’s prophesy about the virgin birth would not be true.

catholicherald.co.uk/commentandblogs/2012/11/28/the-pope-what-a-surprise-insists-in-his-new-book-that-the-virgin-birth-is-a-core-christian-belief-this-is-he-says-a-scandal-for-the-modern-spirit/

Just a thought.
 
If Jesus had brothers and sisters then Mary’s virgin birth of Jesus would be in question since, if this were true, then she may have had children before Jesus and this would throw the virgin birth of Jesus into question. Then Isaiah’s prophesy about the virgin birth would not be true.
Hmmm…

The article doesn’t seem to be saying what you’re reporting that it says.

In addition, you seem to be talking about the Perpetual Virginity of Mary, but are using the words ‘virgin birth’ in that discussion.

Mary was a virgin at the time that Jesus was born. Pope Benedict affirms this in the article you’ve referenced. Mary remained a virgin her entire life, and that means that Jesus didn’t have brothers or sisters born of Mary; but that doesn’t seem to be part of the article that you’re pointing us to…
 
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