M
Mgray82
Guest
This post is more of a discussion of the Greek and the translation the NIV used.Indeed, nobody is disputing that. That is why the question doesn’t matter.
Perhaps I should have mentioned that in the first post.
This post is more of a discussion of the Greek and the translation the NIV used.Indeed, nobody is disputing that. That is why the question doesn’t matter.
Well, they’re not the same word. “Know” speaks to sexual intercourse in some contexts. It’s not that when you see “know” in the Bible, it means “intercourse”; sometimes, though, it can be used this way.In any case, I now know that “know” and “consummate” are the same word in Greek.
It does. I understand.Well, they’re not the same word. “Know” speaks to sexual intercourse in some contexts. It’s not that when you see “know” in the Bible, it means “intercourse”; sometimes, though, it can be used this way.
And, when it’s used this way, it doesn’t necessarily mean “consummate” (i.e., the first time for a married couple). However, in the NIV, they decided to use that word because it fit the context of the passage that you’ve mentioned.
Hope this helps…!
G.
I was not aware that the New International Version had a Catholic Edition. I’m having a little trouble finding a reference to it elsewhere.The NIV-CE is a very respectable translation.
Jeff Cavins and Scott Hahn use the NIV-CE for their Bible studies.It does. I understand.
I guess I’m waiting for someone to put the “Protestant” stamp on it.
I used to love the NIV when I was Protestant. Now I’m slowly learning that its not always reliable…
Hmm. No, if I recall correctly, they use the RSV-CE …Jeff Cavins and Scott Hahn use the NIV-CE for their Bible studies.
OOPSI was not aware that the New International Version had a Catholic Edition. I’m having a little trouble finding a reference to it elsewhere.
Are you sure you didn’t mean the RSV-CE?
I deleted my post. You are correct, they use the RSV-CE.Hmm. No, if I recall correctly, they use the RSV-CE …
=Mgray82;10067745]The NIV translations says;
But he did not consummate their marriage until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus. (Matthew 1:25 NIV)
The Douay Rheims reads;
And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. (Matthew 1:25 DRA)
Obviously this is a classic case for Mary’s perpetual virginity. Is there any validity in the translation for “consummate”? Or is this the typical Protestant way of editing the bible…
Well done!Answers? Thoughts?
I know nothing of fundamentalists. I only know about Lutheran and Methodist, and is why I phrased my initial reply as such. If you read it that is.It matters when we are trying to defend our beliefs about Mary ever-virgin to fundamentalists. Some of them seem so focused on Mary and Joseph having children together after Jesus, I wonder if it’s not a dogma for them!
It has ‘stamped’ itself if you read the introductions, etc. It was formed by the Biblical Society by committee.It does. I understand.
I guess I’m waiting for someone to put the “Protestant” stamp on it.
I used to love the NIV when I was Protestant. Now I’m slowly learning that its not always reliable…
Hmmm…If Jesus had brothers and sisters then Mary’s virgin birth of Jesus would be in question since, if this were true, then she may have had children before Jesus and this would throw the virgin birth of Jesus into question. Then Isaiah’s prophesy about the virgin birth would not be true.