D
dianaiad
Guest
Problem with your presentation of this is that Joseph didn’t find out about Mary’s condition through an angel. He found out about it after she got back from her cousin’s home, over three months pregnant. Her pregnancy was obvious enough that Joseph had to make a decision regarding her. He COULD have had her stoned to death, but 'being righteous, and not willing to make her an example, dis wish privately to send her away." After deciding to send her away, THEN an angel visited him and told him to keep her around.The angel tells Mary God wants her to give birth to the Messiah.
Logically Mary would think okay I guess Joseph and I will have to have sex, cause that’s how you get pregnant.
Yet she says how can this be since I do not no man? Rather than being a stupid woman (certainly not what Gregory implies) she would have been aware of how babies were made, so unless she intended to have sex with Joseph, why the question?
…Alfred Adersheim, in his Sketches of Jewish Social Life, p. 148, says there was a distinction between betrothal and marriage. He immediately adds, however, that from the moment of betrothal the woman was treated as if she were married;…In other words, Mary and Joseph were legally married but had not yet begun living together as husband and wife when Mary as a virgin became pregnant through the power of the Holy Spirit. When an angel informed Joseph in a dream of Mary’s condition, he believed the angel and took Mary to his home. If any of the neighbors noticed Mary was pregnant, they would not have suspected impropriety; they knew the couple had been married for some time. Mary’s condition wouldn’t have been too obvious to the community in any case because Mary soon went into the hill country for three months to visit her cousin Elizabeth (Luke 1:39-40, 56). It is important to understand that no slightest hint of impropriety—much less of immorality—could have been permitted in the carrying out of the birth of Christ, upon whose life, death, and resurrection the whole plan of redemption depended. Deut. 23:2, for example, forbids participation in the Lord’s assembly by a person of illegitimate birth or by any of his descendants to the tenth generation. If there had been any such suspicion, Jesus would have had no possibility of being accepted by the common people. (See Mark 6:2-3 and John 7:46.)
In other words, everybody knew she was pregnant; it was a bit of a scandal, evidently.
Everything you say is true (with the exception of the timing of what Joseph knew and when he knew it) but…doesn’t affect what happened between Mary and Joseph after Jesus’ birth.After all, if God had wished Jesus to have no human father what were the possibilities? He could have chosen a virgin who was not betrothed, or a widow who would have been willing to have a baby and be known as a “single mother” (always insisting that her baby had no human father). In both cases the baby would have been deprived of the important presence of a father in the home, and the mother would have been in danger of punishment under the Jewish law. As for the son, any claim he might make or any good he might do would be rejected as coming from a man of illegitimate birth.
God could have chosen a woman already married and living with her husband. It would not, then, have been a “virgin birth,” but it could have been a birth by the Holy Spirit without a human father. The nature of the birth, then, could have been kept secret (as in the case of Mary) until the appropriate time. But how could even the mother and her husband be sure that there was no earthly father for the baby?
The only other possibility, it would seem, was what God actually did: he chose a pure young woman, betrothed and legally married to a godly young man, but who had not…had any sexual contact with her husband. In this situation the baby could be conceived by the Holy Spirit. The husband could receive his wife…