I am not saying it does not mean anything. I am saying if the meaning is papal, it must be played out after Pentecost.
Okay.
You have taken the affirmative position that the papacy and the keys must be evident in scripture. The burden of proof is on you to prove the affirmative position.
Let’s begin with your underlying assumption; theology must be done from scripture alone.
In the Catholic-Protestant controversy it at least could be agreed upon that Scripture itself is relevant to the question of how we do theology. If it indicates that we should do it one way, then we should. If it indicates we should not do it a particular way, then we shouldn’t.
Things begin to look bad for the Protestant case, then, when we find Scripture saying positive things about the role of Tradition in the Christian life (cf. 1 Cor. 11:2; 2 Thess. 2:15; 3:6; 2 Tim. 2:2). Things look even bleaker when it is realized that there is an absence of verses that teach Scripture alone.
The
coup de grace comes when one realizes that if
sola scriptura were true then there would* have* to be such verses. If all principles of theology must be established by Scripture alone, and
sola scriptura is a principle of theology, then it must be established by Scripture alone. If it can’t be, then it is shown to be false by its own test.
Realizing this, one discovers that the advocate of
sola Scriptura doesn’t have to prove a universal negative; he has to prove a “particular positive”—namely, “Scripture teaches
sola scriptura.”
So here’s the question, Daniel:
Does the Bible teach sola scriptura?