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veritas82
Guest
I’ve tried to keep pretty close to Aquinas in the hope of being helpful, didn’t want to insert unwanted Islamic philosophy/theology. However, with this statement I thought I may offer a personal reflection. Maybe it’d be useful?I was explaining to the other poster that there are two possibilities:Either a sinless world with free will is possible or free will necessitates sin.
If we say that free will necessitates sin then we’re also saying everything with free will has sinned. One example where this doesn’t hold is God. Of course this may this maybe a special case, because he is All Good or maybe He dictates what is sin and what is not by His Will. If we slightly change the original statement to free will in the created necessitates sin then I still feel there is an example where it doesn’t hold; The Blessed Virgin. From an Islamic perspective, she and all Prophets are sinless I’m not entirely sure if you guys agree with the latter, but I’m sure you do with the former. Since revelation is above reason then free will in the created cannot necessitate sin.
Could we explain this logically? If we take Aquinas’ statements I posted above then we can say that man’s acts are directed to virtue, so that a virtuous act is a good use of free will and an evil use of free will is a deprivation since it was directed to virtue but chose vice. If God can increase that which is in a man’s essence i.e. his ability to fulfil the direction of his acts to virtue then it seems entirely possible that a person could be sinless. Just some reflections, any comments?