Christ did not use the septuagint as that is greek and Christ lived in Israel where the language was aramiac and liturgical language was hebrew… However the evidence shows that he used a hebrew equivalent of the septuagint. This is proven true in the fact that his old testament quotes coincide with the septuagint rendering of verses. However the gospel writers used the septuagint and around 70% percent of the new testament quotes come the Septuagint.
What makes you think Jesus spoke Hebrew? He would have been as likely to speak Hebrew as you are to speak Latin. Hebrew was not a common spoken language for 500 years. Hebrew texts in the synagogues were explained in Aramaic, suggesting that most Galileans did not understand Hebrew. Jesus almost certainly spoke Aramaic and Greek (the two predominant languages in Palestine, Greek being the predominant language in Galilee). I doubt Jesus spoke a language almost no one around him could understand.
Actually, Hebrew was still a spoken language. Aramaic steadily began to gain ground in Palestine at the beginning of the Hellenistic age (around 330 BC) because of its importance in Persian imperial administration and the commercial contacts which went with it. Hebrew was still maintaining itself despite this: it was still possible to write original literature in Late Biblical Hebrew, and it continued so down to the 1st century. Meanwhile the colloquial form of Hebrew, the basis of Middle Hebrew, was also taking hold in certain quarters. The Hebrew language’s decline was actually averted (rather ironically) by the arrival of Greek, and the total swing in the political balance that accompanied it, which substantially reduced the value and attractiveness of Aramaic, especially from the viewpoint of social, cultural and commercial leadership.
You have to remember that a ‘Bible’ in the modern sense (a collection of works deemed to be canonical bound together under one cover) was something that only came into existence long afterwards: somewhere around the 4th-5th century, just about the time when the canon of Scripture was being more concretely defined. But even then, ‘full’ Bibles were still very rare (after all, books were still copied by hand) up until I think around the invention of the press during the late Middle Ages. Originally, what you had was not one single book, but a library of books - and before that, scrolls.
The oldest Bibles (in the modern sense) are the four great uncials, all from the period between the 4th and the 5th century: Codex Vaticanus, contemporary, Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Alexandrinus and Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus.
Since the scriptures read in synagouge and Temple were in Hebrew…especially the Law…and since Jesus read the scriptures in synagougt and a Palestinian Jew, he would have been familiar with Hebrew enough to read it. Aramaic was spoken in Palestine…but Greek was the language of the Diaspora, which the Septuagint was translated in the frist place for…not for Aramaic speaking, Hebrew reading Palestinain Jews.
Iranaeous of Lyon in the late 2nd century claims Matthew was written in the language of the Jews
Greek was only a spoken language for those diaspora Jews living in Greek-speaking areas. The sizable (and perhaps majority) Jewish population living to the east of Palestine would have been Aramaic speakers in various dialects–thus the need for Aramaic translations of the Hebrew scriptures.Since the scriptures read in synagouge and Temple were in Hebrew…especially the Law…and since Jesus read the scriptures in synagougt and a Palestinian Jew, he would have been familiar with Hebrew enough to read it. Aramaic was spoken in Palestine…but Greek was the language of the Diaspora, which the Septuagint was translated in the frist place for…not for Aramaic speaking, Hebrew reading Palestinain Jews.
one must not confuse Aramaic with Syriac.
I think you got it upside down. The language spoken in Malloula (and two other nearby villages) is Western Neo-Aramaic. Western Neo-Aramaic’s claim to fame is that it is the only surviving Western Aramaic language today; all the other forms of Aramaic that are still spoken today (Syriac included) belong to the Eastern branch.
Question “Palestinian Jew” To my knowledge there is no such thing. The term Palestinain did come about til after the destruction of Israel in 70 AD. Paul did not carry the Jewish book with him, he talked to the people in many different languages. When he did speak to the Jews they would check their Books to see if what he said was true. Look to Acts of Paul in Berea.