The "other" origin of the KJV

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Shaolen

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So I have a Baptist friend who told me hes studying the “other” origin of the KJV. I asked him what he meant and he said

“It talks about a collection of the scriptures before the councils. Using the sermons and writings of religious greats. They find references to all the letters and the gospels”

It sounds to me to be a theory to show that the KJV (or at least its canon without the deutercanon) was around before the reformation. Has anyone heard of this before? Any thoughts would be appreciated
 
The books of the Old Testament, in Hebrew, all existed before Christ. The New Testament books, in Greek, all date from the First Century. There was no agreement on which were canonical before the (Catholic) Church defined them. There was nothing called “the Bible” until the Church invented the term.

The King James Version is a relatively recent translation into English. Interestingly, the original KJV does include the deuterocanonical Old Testament books rejected by many modern Protestants.
 
So I have a Baptist friend who told me hes studying the “other” origin of the KJV. I asked him what he meant and he said

“It talks about a collection of the scriptures before the councils. Using the sermons and writings of religious greats. They find references to all the letters and the gospels”

It sounds to me to be a theory to show that the KJV (or at least its canon without the deutercanon) was around before the reformation. Has anyone heard of this before? Any thoughts would be appreciated
That would be strange indeed for something like that to be not detected by so many vested parties involved in the KJV project.

Any evidence provided?
 
That would be strange indeed for something like that to be not detected by so many vested parties involved in the KJV project.

Any evidence provided?
I maybe will ask him a bit further on specifics and let you guys know
 
The books of the Old Testament, in Hebrew, all existed before Christ. The New Testament books, in Greek, all date from the First Century. There was no agreement on which were canonical before the (Catholic) Church defined them. There was nothing called “the Bible” until the Church invented the term.

The King James Version is a relatively recent translation into English. Interestingly, the original KJV does include the deuterocanonical Old Testament books rejected by many modern Protestants.
Did the original KJV have the deuterocanon in their rightful order or were they all at the back of the OT as Apocrypha? And if they were in their normal order where can I get evidence for this?
 
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