The "Our Father":...deliver us fm evil?

[Genesius]

I am a convert. I actually liked the KJV “Lord’s Prayer” better because it sounds so poetic. I also notice there is some confusion when protestants and Catholics pray it together. Anyway, that’s no big deal…just a preference. My real question, I am asking on behalf of the nun at my parish who acts as “assistant pastor”.
I sometimes attend daily mass and I notice that we stop at “…deliver us from evil.” I asked her why and she told me it’s because the next part that the priest says is not considered to be appropriately quoted by a layperson. She wanted me to inquire as to what is so “priestly” about that phrase that a layperson could not say it?

 

[Br.Rich_SFO]

I am a convert. I actually liked the KJV “Lord’s Prayer” better because it sounds so poetic. I also notice there is some confusion when protestants and Catholics pray it together. Anyway, that’s no big deal…just a preference. My real question, I am asking on behalf of the nun at my parish who acts as “assistant pastor”.
I sometimes attend daily mass and I notice that we stop at “…deliver us from evil.” I asked her why and she told me it’s because the next part that the priest says is not considered to be appropriately quoted by a layperson. She wanted me to inquire as to what is so “priestly” about that phrase that a layperson could not say it?

I assume that you are speaking about the part between “Deliver us from evil” and “For thine is the Kingdom…” The part that goes “Deliver us O Lord from every evil and grant us peace…”

It is priestly because the liturgical rubrics indicate that all say the first part, the priest alone says the middle part, and all say the conclusion. Because that is what is called for in the rubrics. Contrary to popular belief Mass is offered by the priest, we unite our selves to that offering. So at this point the priest who is offering the Mass is praying to the Lord on our behalf.