The Our Father

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Tom_Hale

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Does anyone know why the phrase: “for thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory…” is said at the end of the Our Father in the Protestant tradition, and in the Catholic Mass we end it the way we do and then the priest says a prayer and then we say: for thine is …" As far as history goes, was this doxology an add on during the Reformation?
 
From what I understand, the doxology was a note in the margin of the text which found it’s way into the body of the text during one of many translations, possibly the King James 1611?

King James translations include the doxology in Matthew 6, Catholic translations do not.
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As far as history goes, was this doxology an add on during the Reformation?

**The doxology, doubtless based on Jewish precedents, has always been said in the Byzantine (Catholic and Orthodox) Churches with the Persons of the Trinity mentioned:

“For thine is the Kingdom and the Power and the Glory of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, now and ever and unto ages of ages. Amen.”

In the Coptic Church (Catholic and non-Chalcedonian) the words “through Christ our Lord” are added as well.

So the doxology to the Lord’s Prayer is NOT a Reformation addition, though it seems to be an issue in some places. **
 
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