P
Philthy
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there was no “assumed succession” it was actual and is historical fact.There isn’t “an assumed succesion” of the papal office. A gratuitous assertion merits a gratuitous response.
~Matt
there was no “assumed succession” it was actual and is historical fact.There isn’t “an assumed succesion” of the papal office. A gratuitous assertion merits a gratuitous response.
~Matt
Matt - when you look at 2 Thes 2:15 again:If it’s transmitted outside of Scripture but you don’t have any solid record of it, why should I believe you when you say you have additional–outside of the Scriptures–inspired words that should be obeyed? If you’re aware of the existence of such words, then you can object to Sola Scriptura on a theoretical level; but until you can produce such teachings, you won’t convince anyone interested in the practical.
You might direct me to the early church fathers as representative of this “oral belief” not contained in the Scriptures. I would, however, point out that such an appeal is largely arbitrary when you consider the wide and varied belief among the fathers. Which beliefs do we follow? Jerome and his decision to follow an Old Testament canon without the deuterocanonicals? Irenaeus and his belief that Jesus lived to be over fifty? Augustine and his belief that Jesus Christ was the only immaculately conceived being? Appeals to a succession of belief are largely arbitrary because you have to appeal to the father that agrees with you, or, in the case of no father agreeing with you, to a development of doctrine that disproves your very position on the oral word being passed down.
The problem is summarized in this question, How do you determine when the oral word of God was faithfully passed on and when it wasn’t?
~Matt
Attend a mass.I would prefer that you produce the oral tradition in such a way as I could examine it
Daddy, what’s an ipse dixit?there was no “assumed succession” it was actual and is historical fact.
Sorry, it’s good, but not perfect. I’ve already been shot down with this one. Their answer is that the Bible is “a fallible collection of infallible books”, or something to that effect.If, when the Canon was assembled, all of the apostles were dead, and Christ was in heaven, who or what was used infallibly to determine what was inspired and what was not. Since they did not use Scripture to assemble the list of Canon, doesn’t that kind of prove that scripture is not the only infallable authority.
Until this oral tradition can be produced instead of referred to**MariaG:
And we are told in Scriture to hold fast to traditions, oral or by letter 2 Thess 2:15. It doesn’t say to compare it to what is written and give the written primacy. The Scripture tells us in 2 Tim 2:2 to entrust to faithful teachers what you heard from me. An Oral Tradition.
I can see your point of sufficiency in the OT, but my question is two-fold. One, sufficient for what, the preparation for the Christ. Christ was not too happy with ths state of the OT family of God, The OT Scriptures were sufficient for a minimum understanding of who God was and what was minimaly expected of you prior to being redeemed. Remember at the time there was no possibility of Salvation, only a hope of a future Savior. Christ came to perfect and fullfill the old law not do away with it. Now that he has come, and he has set up the Heavenly Jerusalem and theb KIngdom of God isn a reality not a hope, sufficiency is no longer our demise. We have been given the gift of not only God Breathed Scripture, but the authority that can interpret that Scripture in the way that God wants that Scripture understood in each and every generation. Peter and his successors, and I believe that Scripture has proven that the Apostles had successors(Acts 1:20), and that Peter especially, as the successor to Eliacim in the houshold of David, in the Heavenly household of the Son of David, has Successors that carry on his authority to lead us into all truth. Your process of elimination Idea I believe has just been disproven. You have been shown that Scripture, while it maybe sufficient to lead the non believer to Christ, it is not sufficient in and of itself to interpret itself and to lead the New believer into all truth precisley because context is so important, and without a church, and just like in the protestant churches your Pastor thinks he is interpreting scripture correctly, but he has no gaurantee and he does not have the knowledge of 2000 years of faithful exegesis, or the guide of the Holy Spirit the way the Pope has, without a church to guide and say this is the way God meant this passage to be interpreted and lived, you cannot be lead into all truth. Sufficiency should not be your goal, Fullness of Truth should be your goal and God can provide that for you in the Catholic Church. You can be sure that you are not living in Heresy in the Catholic ChurchI don’t argue that the Scriptures contain every word that the Apostles received from Christ. However, have you considered that the Old Testament Scriptures were sufficient to bring Timothy to salvation (2 Timothy 3:15)? Without even mentioning other passages that suggest or demonstrate the sufficiency of Scripture in containing the full message of salvation, how much more would the New Testament Scriptures be sufficient if the Old Testament was?
That’s a serious misrepresentation of my words. Please read some of my other posts in this thread if you don’t see why.So Matt, it seems that you doubt the Truth of 2 Tim. I find that hard to believe. The Bible states it, so it is True.
The original argument was being made from Scripture. I’m not the one trying to prove the Papacy from Scripture.Actually Matt, you have invented a burden of proof here that is of your own making: that the apostolic succession must be contained in Scripture.
In addition, your contention that the “association is unwarranted” is false from Scripture alone! There is, in fact, evidence of apostolic succession from Judas to Mattias. All you have done is to create an apparent dichotomy between “apostolic succession” and “succession of the papal office” - they are the same thing.
You’re just repeating the comments and arguments of other posters without addressing the issues I’ve previously raised. Instead of repeating what other posters have written, why don’t you address the problems I’ve raised with the Scriptural proof that was used to support the Papacy?there was no “assumed succession” it was actual and is historical fact.
You’re appealing to the consequences of a belief as the reason for rejecting it. That’s fallacious. I don’t like the fact that nuclear weapons cause a lot of destruction, but that wouldn’t be legitimate grounds for arguing that they don’t exist.My reasoning is this: God did author Scripture. He doesn’t make mistakes. For him to include a redundancy like this ( assuming oral teaching and written word are equal) would be unnecessary and potentially confusing for the believers He knew were to read it.
Yes, it is outrageous that you would read too much into my words. The point in question was whether or not the Old Testament Scriptures contained all that is needed, knowledge wise, about how to obtain salvation. i.e. Was the Old Testament sufficient to relate to a Jew the knowledge of salvation 100 years before Christ?Matt- You’ve overstated (bolded above), the implications of this verse and in the process have essentially proposed that the NT is just a redundancy on God’s part. Outrageous!
Would you have another source to offer? Your answer to this question might put us back on the subject of oral tradition.And it doesn’t even say that the wisdom you do get from Scripture is complete.
The point wasn’t to show that it can lead the believer into “all truth.” Classical Protestantism never taught such through Sola Scriptura. My purpose was to demonstrate that the Scriptures are sufficient to bring someone to Christ, and since we agree on that, there is no need to belabor the point.You have been shown that Scripture, while it maybe sufficient to lead the non believer to Christ, it is not sufficient in and of itself to interpret itself and to lead the New believer into all truth
there was no “assumed succession” it was actual and is historical fact.
Daddy, what’s an ipse dixit?
It means “He, himself, said it” (as in, “He said it, so it must be true”)what’s this mean??? Over my head…
Originally Posted by fulloftruth
Jesus did recognize Papal infallibility, he instituted it. When Jesus stated in Matt 16:18-19, that Peter would be given the “keys to the Kingdom,” He was pulling from the text of Isaiah 22:20-24 almost verbatum. "And it shall come to pass in that day, that I will call my servant Eliacim the son of Helcias; And I will clothe him with thy robe, and will strengthen him with thy girdle, and will give thy power into his hand: and he shall be as a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem, and to the house of Judah. And I will lay the **key of the house of David **upon his shoulder: and he shall open, and none shall shut: and he shall shut, and none shall open. And I will fasten him as a peg in a sure place, and he shall be for a throne of glory to the house of his father. And they shall hang upon him all the glory of his father’s house, divers kinds of vessels, every little vessel, from the vessels of cups even to every instrument of music."
How do references to having “power” and being a “father” equate to papal infallibility? Even referring to Peter being a “peg in a sure place” doesn’t equate to papal infallibility. This is an exercise in begging the question.
Why should a connection be draw between this office and the keys to the kingdom? If you’re going to draw a parallel between the Old Testament succession of rulers and the New Testament Papacy, you need to demonstrate that each ruler had assigned to them the keys. So far the parallel only includes one case of key giving in the Old Testament, and this naturally leads to one case in the New Testament.Also, the office of Prime Minister lasted for the entire duration of the Kingdom of David, always appointing a successor when needed, and that successor had the same authority as the person he replaced, it is the office that holds the authority, and that authority is held by who ever holds that office.
~Matt
I would prefer that you provided a substantial response to the issues I’ve raised with proving the Papacy from Scripture. Instead of doing that, you’ve written about how blind and biased I am and simply reasserted your case without providing any additional evidence.Open your eyes and forget all of the lies you have been told by anti Catholics.
Jesus does give Peter the authority to bind and loose just after He said that Peter was rock.I would prefer that you provided a substantial response to the issues I’ve raised with proving the Papacy from Scripture.