THe Popes Jurisdiction

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I believe the Truth is a holy thing. Your presentation of the papacy has not been altogether true (perhaps unintentionally). The papacy as you present it is a partial cause of the continuing schism with the Orthodox Churches. Unity is also a holy thing, and working for unity by presenting the Truth is necessary according to Jesus’ commandment.

Blessings,
Marduk
Thank you for your answer. As I said before, the Oriental Churches have a unique situation and I’m not an expert in Oriental law. I can only speak about the papacy from the Roman perspective. I do agree that truth is a holy thing. I’m trying very hard to understand the Oriental perspective here.

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
 
Allow me to ask a question at this point. What’s in it for the posters who come here to limit the power of the papacy over dioceses? Does it add anything to their life of faith? Does it enrich their life of prayer? Does it stear them away from sin and closer to the perfection of charity?

I’m asking, because I often find that many of these threads don’t really nurture the spiritual life. When the rubber meets the road, the call is to holiness. If one is just out to “dethrone” the papacy, that certainly works against the call to holiness. If one is simply out to kill time, that’s OK too. Entertainment can be a good thing. But we should then be open and tell people that this is just a “fun” question, not really something pertinent to holiness.

We have to show how something is either necessary for holiness or necessary for relaxation and entertainment, which can help us be holier people. I believe that stressed out Christians are not always very holy.

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
I think for the most part you are right, however in the last few days I did find myself having a very interesting talk with a seminarian about papal infallibility. It was started over the recent news issue. My take on it was over the weekend until we actually knew what the Pope actually said in it’s entirety it and it met the requirements for infallibility then it we could not jump on that band wagon. Meanwhile this person was making statements like anything the Holy Father says is 100% correct. I believe he is correct but that we need to be careful that he actually said it and before we jump on an infallibility bandwagon without a statement meeting the infallibility requirements. So that is my take on why this stuff may have resurfaced in the last few days. One word: condoms.
 
I think for the most part you are right, however in the last few days I did find myself having a very interesting talk with a seminarian about papal infallibility. It was started over the recent news issue. My take on it was over the weekend until we actually knew what the Pope actually said in it’s entirety it and it met the requirements for infallibility then it we could not jump on that band wagon. Meanwhile this person was making statements like anything the Holy Father says is 100% correct. I believe he is correct but that we need to be careful that he actually said it and before we jump on an infallibility bandwagon without a statement meeting the infallibility requirements. So that is my take on why this stuff may have resurfaced in the last few days. One word: condoms.
That’s an interesting insight. I had not given much thought to this, because the Pope’s statement didn’t rattle me at all. I understood what he was talking about and I understood the method that he was using to get there. It’s a very Bonaventurian method, which Franciscans use as second nature.

That being said, in this case, what the pope is saying should be taken very seriously and certainly respected. Before jumping up and down and challenging his authority, people would do better to say, “I know that he is an Augustine and Bonaventure scholar. How would they answer this question?” When you approach it that way, then you can understand his answer. Of course, this means that you make the time to read Augustine and Bonaventure. I understand that some people do not have the time and other people do not have the interest. Not having the interest is lame. Not having the time is legitimate. When I don’t have the time, I simply trust that he knows what he’s talking about.

I really had not given any thought to this point that you made. It’s an interesting proposal and you may be right. Hmmmm, “interesing” as Mr. Spock would say.

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
 
I think for the most part you are right, however in the last few days I did find myself having a very interesting talk with a seminarian about papal infallibility. It was started over the recent news issue. My take on it was over the weekend until we actually knew what the Pope actually said in it’s entirety it and it met the requirements for infallibility then it we could not jump on that band wagon. Meanwhile this person was making statements like anything the Holy Father says is 100% correct. I believe he is correct but that we need to be careful that he actually said it and before we jump on an infallibility bandwagon without a statement meeting the infallibility requirements. So that is my take on why this stuff may have resurfaced in the last few days. One word: condoms.
I posted something before and then asked the moderator to delete it. It didn’t make sense to me, after I read it and I ran out of deleting time. Let’s see if this works.

Your proposal tha tthis has to do with the pope’s statement on condoms is an interesting one. I had not thought about it that way, because what he said made perfect sense to me.

I can understand how it would not make sense to some people, unless they can think in Augustinian and Franciscan systems. Pope Benedict is very Augustinian and Franciscan in his thinking. He often speaks like Augustine and Bonaventure, which is not what most Catholics are used to. He’s not saying anything new. He’s just saying it in “Augustinian and Franciscan Italian,” if these were a language.

That makes more sense, even to me. 😃

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
 
Just thought I would provide some canons from the Code of Canons of Oriental Churches that I think are relevant to the discussion.

Canon 43

The bishop of the Church of Rome, in whom resides the office (munus) given in special way by the Lord to Peter, first of the Apostles and to be transmitted to his successors, is head of the college of bishops, the Vicar of Christ and Pastor of the entire Church on earth; therefore, in virtue of his office (munus) he enjoys supreme, full, immediate and universal ordinary power in the Church which he can always freely exercise.

Canon 45

1.
The Roman Pontiff, by virtue of his office (munus), not only has power over the entire Church but also possesses a primacy of ordinary power over all the eparchies and groupings of them by which the proper, ordinary and immediate power which bishops possess in the eparchy entrusted to their care is both strengthened and safeguarded.
2. The Roman Pontiff, in fulfilling the office (munus) of the supreme pastor of the Church is always united in communion with the other bishops and with the entire Church; however, he has the right, according to the needs of the Church, to determine the manner, either personal or collegial, of exercising this function.
3. There is neither appeal nor recourse against a sentence or decree of the Roman Pontiff.

Canon 46

1.
In exercising his office (munus) the Roman Pontiff is assisted by the bishops who aid him in various ways and among these is the synod of bishops; moreover the cardinals, the Roman curia, pontifical legates and other persons and various institutes assist him according to the needs of the times; all these persons and institutes carry out the task committed to them in his name and by his authority for the good of all the Churches, according to the norm of law established by the Roman Pontiff himself.
2. The participation of patriarchs and other hierarchs who preside over Churches sui iuris in the synod of bishops is regulated by special norms established by the Roman Pontiff.
 
Just thought I would provide some canons from the Code of Canons of Oriental Churches that I think are relevant to the discussion.

Canon 43

The bishop of the Church of Rome, in whom resides the office (munus) given in special way by the Lord to Peter, first of the Apostles and to be transmitted to his successors, is head of the college of bishops, the Vicar of Christ and Pastor of the entire Church on earth; therefore, in virtue of his office (munus) he enjoys supreme, full, immediate and universal ordinary power in the Church which he can always freely exercise.

Canon 45

1.
The Roman Pontiff, by virtue of his office (munus), not only has power over the entire Church but also possesses a primacy of ordinary power over all the eparchies and groupings of them by which the proper, ordinary and immediate power which bishops possess in the eparchy entrusted to their care is both strengthened and safeguarded.
2. The Roman Pontiff, in fulfilling the office (munus) of the supreme pastor of the Church is always united in communion with the other bishops and with the entire Church; however, he has the right, according to the needs of the Church, to determine the manner, either personal or collegial, of exercising this function.
3. There is neither appeal nor recourse against a sentence or decree of the Roman Pontiff.
Canon 46

1.
In exercising his office (munus) the Roman Pontiff is assisted by the bishops who aid him in various ways and among these is the synod of bishops; moreover the cardinals, the Roman curia, pontifical legates and other persons and various institutes assist him according to the needs of the times; all these persons and institutes carry out the task committed to them in his name and by his authority for the good of all the Churches, according to the norm of law established by the Roman Pontiff himself.
2. The participation of patriarchs and other hierarchs who preside over Churches sui iuris in the synod of bishops is regulated by special norms established by the Roman Pontiff.
OK, so Brother, help me to understand the part that I bolded in red. In the Roman Church, there is an understanding that the pope need not explain himself when he uses his ordinary authority. For example, he can pull a bishop from a diocese and wave off the questions. Granted, it would not be the most diplomatic thing to do, but he can do it. He has that kind of power No one can appeal to a higher authority, because there is no higher authority.

Do the Oriental Catholics, especially the hierarchy, accept that the pope has this kind of power in the Eastern Churches or is his authority limited and if so, who monitors and regulates him?

Thanks for your help.

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
 
OK, so Brother, help me to understand the part that I bolded in red. In the Roman Church, there is an understanding that the pope need not explain himself when he uses his ordinary authority. For example, he can pull a bishop from a diocese and wave off the questions. Granted, it would not be the most diplomatic thing to do, but he can do it. He has that kind of power No one can appeal to a higher authority, because there is no higher authority.

Do the Oriental Catholics, especially the hierarchy, accept that the pope has this kind of power in the Eastern Churches or is his authority limited and if so, who monitors and regulates him?

Thanks for your help.

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
These canons I posted are from the Eastern Code so while the hierarchy (and some of the laity) might not like it, it is written as it is written. The pope has such power over the whole of the Catholic Church. As it says, he has “a primacy of ordinary power over all the eparchies and groupings of them by which the proper, ordinary and immediate power which bishops possess in the eparchy” and that “There is neither appeal nor recourse against a sentence or decree of the Roman Pontiff.”

So I would say that his, the popes, authority is limited in no way and there is no one who monitors him or regulates him.

I would also say that seeing that this is in the Code of Canons for Oriental Churches (the Canon Law of the Eastern Catholic Churches) that the hierarchies do not have much against it. My guess is that it is more of the laity who would raise issues with these canons as it may seem to violate their personal beliefs as to what sui juris means.

Another guess on my part is that those who self identify as “Orthodox in communion with Rome” will have the greatest issues with these canons rather than those who self identify as “Byzantine (or Eastern) Catholic”.

But as you said. While the canons are there, I highly doubt that they would be used. If a bishop of an eparchy needed to be removed the patriarch would be aware of this and would most likely act with his synod to take care of it. For those non-patriarchal Churches the major archbishop would do so with his synod. For the others the Oriental Congregation would act. If the patriarch or major archbishop ignored the issue I am sure the pope would work through them and only act using these canons if they refused to do what must be done.
 
I posted something before and then asked the moderator to delete it. It didn’t make sense to me, after I read it and I ran out of deleting time. Let’s see if this works.

Your proposal tha tthis has to do with the pope’s statement on condoms is an interesting one. I had not thought about it that way, because what he said made perfect sense to me.

I can understand how it would not make sense to some people, unless they can think in Augustinian and Franciscan systems. Pope Benedict is very Augustinian and Franciscan in his thinking. He often speaks like Augustine and Bonaventure, which is not what most Catholics are used to. He’s not saying anything new. He’s just saying it in “Augustinian and Franciscan Italian,” if these were a language.

That makes more sense, even to me. 😃

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
What Pope Benedict XVI actually said made great sense to me once I got a chance to read it - Tuesday morning.

What the Secular media and some of the Catholic media excerpted saying he said made abolutely no sense and that onslaught started Friday night.

The problem here was not what Pope Benedict XVI said - it was how it was released.

There is a lot to be said for top down authority and teaching and not letting the NY Times release moral teachings and have people attach the words “papal infallibility” to it.

It just goes to show in this information age how easily a “hoax” could have been played had one been so inclined.

One of my Fraternity council and I talked about it Monday night - she was on National and very well educated - she looked at me and basically was of the opinion that she was not touching that until the Brothers gave her the teaching.

I do pray sooner than later the Vatican finds a more interactive way to communicate with Joe and Jane Catholic on a daily basis. IMHO.

Pax et Bonum - but off the subject - but maybe not as authority only goes as far as the power that can be legitimately expressed and applied.
 
These canons I posted are from the Eastern Code so while the hierarchy (and some of the laity) might not like it, it is written as it is written. The pope has such power over the whole of the Catholic Church. As it says, he has “a primacy of ordinary power over all the eparchies and groupings of them by which the proper, ordinary and immediate power which bishops possess in the eparchy” and that “There is neither appeal nor recourse against a sentence or decree of the Roman Pontiff.”

So I would say that his, the popes, authority is limited in no way and there is no one who monitors him or regulates him.

I would also say that seeing that this is in the Code of Canons for Oriental Churches (the Canon Law of the Eastern Catholic Churches) that the hierarchies do not have much against it. My guess is that it is more of the laity who would raise issues with these canons as it may seem to violate their personal beliefs as to what sui juris means.

Another guess on my part is that those who self identify as “Orthodox in communion with Rome” will have the greatest issues with these canons rather than those who self identify as “Byzantine (or Eastern) Catholic”.

But as you said. While the canons are there, I highly doubt that they would be used. If a bishop of an eparchy needed to be removed the patriarch would be aware of this and would most likely act with his synod to take care of it. For those non-patriarchal Churches the major archbishop would do so with his synod. For the others the Oriental Congregation would act. If the patriarch or major archbishop ignored the issue I am sure the pope would work through them and only act using these canons if they refused to do what must be done.
That’s what I was thinking too. But then, given that I was accused of being wrong (see above), I thought, “Well maybe it’s my Franciscan mind at work here. Our rule is very specific. It actually says that he we must obey the pope, without questioning.” Bonaventure, later wrote, that the pope does not owe anyone an explanation. He is the final authority and the only time that he can be questioned is when he either is “nuts” or “a heretic”. Barring insanity and heresy, he can do whatever he pleases and the rest of the Church must march to the tune that he plays. That’s how Bonaventure explained it. To me, this question about his authority and jurisdiction was like a “non question”. I was reading it and saying to myself, “How is this helpful? Why would anyone even ask this? It’s a given. He’s the highest temporal authority.”

Do you see how and why I am stunned by these questions?

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
 
That’s what I was thinking too. But then, given that I was accused of being wrong (see above), I thought, “Well maybe it’s my Franciscan mind at work here. Our rule is very specific. It actually says that he we must obey the pope, without questioning.” Bonaventure, later wrote, that the pope does not owe anyone an explanation. He is the final authority and the only time that he can be questioned is when he either is “nuts” or “a heretic”. Barring insanity and heresy, he can do whatever he pleases and the rest of the Church must march to the tune that he plays. That’s how Bonaventure explained it. To me, this question about his authority and jurisdiction was like a “non question”. I was reading it and saying to myself, “How is this helpful? Why would anyone even ask this? It’s a given. He’s the highest temporal authority.”

Do you see how and why I am stunned by these questions?

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
Well, we must remember to that at the Last Supper all but twelve walked away and returned to their former way of lives. And even one of those twelve was a traitor. If the followers of Christ of yesteryear will do it to Christ - they will surely do it to Peter and his successors; I guess the question is what can we do to defend this in a logical way that makes sense rather than seems sensationalized?
 
That’s what I was thinking too. But then, given that I was accused of being wrong (see above), I thought, “Well maybe it’s my Franciscan mind at work here. Our rule is very specific. It actually says that he we must obey the pope, without questioning.” Bonaventure, later wrote, that the pope does not owe anyone an explanation. He is the final authority and the only time that he can be questioned is when he either is “nuts” or “a heretic”. Barring insanity and heresy, he can do whatever he pleases and the rest of the Church must march to the tune that he plays. That’s how Bonaventure explained it. To me, this question about his authority and jurisdiction was like a “non question”. I was reading it and saying to myself, “How is this helpful? Why would anyone even ask this? It’s a given. He’s the highest temporal authority.”

Do you see how and why I am stunned by these questions?

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
Yes I can and I was also stunned which is why I looked up the actual canons and provided them when I found that they supported your statements.
 
What Pope Benedict XVI actually said made great sense to me once I got a chance to read it - Tuesday morning.

What the Secular media and some of the Catholic media excerpted saying he said made abolutely no sense and that onslaught started Friday night.

The problem here was not what Pope Benedict XVI said - it was how it was released.

There is a lot to be said for top down authority and teaching and not letting the NY Times release moral teachings and have people attach the words “papal infallibility” to it.

It just goes to show in this information age how easily a “hoax” could have been played had one been so inclined.

One of my Fraternity council and I talked about it Monday night - she was on National and very well educated - she looked at me and basically was of the opinion that she was not touching that until the Brothers gave her the teaching.

I do pray sooner than later the Vatican finds a more interactive way to communicate with Joe and Jane Catholic on a daily basis. IMHO.

Pax et Bonum - but off the subject - but maybe not as authority only goes as far as the power that can be legitimately expressed and applied.
When I was a formator for our men I always told them, “The pope does not have to invoke infallibility anymore than your mother does. Authority has rights and when it speaks, you had better take it seriously and follow directions, unless you can prove, without a doubt, that it is being abused.”

I always used this example, because we don’t demand that our parents prove that they are right or if we’re parents, we don’t feel the need to prove to our children that we’re right when we say “No.” or when we say, “Do it now.” We expect compliance. If we didn’t we’d be lousy parents. The same holds true for the Father of the Universal Church. He has authority. He does not need to present his credentials everytime he talks. Unless he’s a nut or a heretic. he remains the man at the top.

Let’s cut to the chase. Do we want a figure head at the helm of the Church or do we want someone with power and authority?

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
 
Ok, this is what you’re not getting I think. Let’;s read that canon again:

Can. 333 §1. By virtue of his office, the Roman Pontiff not only possesses power offer the universal Church but also obtains the primacy of ordinary power over all particular churches and groups of them. Moreover, this primacy strengthens and protects the proper, ordinary, and immediate power which bishops possess in the particular churches entrusted to their care./B]

Ok, but notice, the Popes authority over any diocese other than his own is NOT PROPER, ecclesiologically speaking. HE is not steering the diocese of fresno say, and IT IS NOT HIS RIGHT TO.

None of these canons say the Pope has PROPER jurisdiction outside his own see.

He has Ordinary, immediate, supreme and universal authority that can always be excercised freely, yes, but those terms have specific ecclesiological definitions that have been set forth clearly.

Once again, Ordinary jurisdiction is power that is INHERENT to the office. EVERY Bishop BY RIGHT has jurisdiction of his own particular see. If this was not true, then why are auxillary Bishops granted titular sees? It is because the Church recognizes that there is no such thing as a bishop without a see.

Again, IMMEDIATE Jurisdiction is jurisdiction that is granted by Christ himself. ALL BISHOPS POSSES IMMEDIATE JURISDICTION over their particular sees, even titular ones, in theory, if they were to exist. That is because the office of Bishop as established by Christ has inherent jurisdiction.

Even a mitred Abbot , which is basically a Personal ordinariate for a religious community has proper jurisdiction over the persons entrusted to his care (i.e. the Norbertines).

Proper Jurisdiction is the Jurisdiction belonging by right to those Bishops who oversee their own particular diocese.

Now, an Archbishop does have Ordinary Jurisdiction Over his archdiocese, and all diocese that belong to it. But he does not have Proper Jurisdiction over those individual Diocese, even though he is considered an Ordinary for Them. Likewise a Patriarch does have Ordinary Jurisdiction over all diocese in his territory, but he does Not have Proper Jurisdiction. The limits of this authority are defined by the Church.

Also, his Authority over these diocese , while Ordinary, is not immediate, because Christ did not establish Archbishops and Patriarchs.

NOw, The POPE has Authority over all the Diocese of the whole Church. Just Like Patriarchs and Archbishops. But his Authority, as such, is IMMEDIATE, that is Christ told Peter to govern the whole Church. BUT HE DIDN"T TELL HIM HOW.
Which means at least some of the Popes privileges must be determined by an ecumenical council, or by some local council ratified by an ecumenical council, like Sardica.

SUpreme and full simply means that the Authority he has is An authority no one else can have: it is supreme; and full simply means that what other Bishops have in part (Territories of Jurisdiction) he has In full (Universal jurisdiction).

BUT DOES HE HAVE THE RIGHT TO ADMINISTER THE AFFAIRS OF ANY OTHER SEE PROPERLY?

Actually, can we say the Papacy is a Personal Ordinariate, since his jurisdiction extends to all people of all territories? This may also resolve some tensions as to who holds the territory issues… no?
If I may please let me clarify several points. An archbishop is not the ordinary of the other dioceses within an ecclesiastical province. An ecclesiastical province comprises of a minimum of two sees. One of these will be an archdiocese, the remaining ones will be dioceses. The archdiocese is called the metropolitan see of the province and the dioceses are called the suffragan sees of the province.

The archbishop exercises ordinary jurisdiction over his own archdiocese but not over any of the dioceses in his province. Each bishop of each diocese in the province exercises ordinary jurisdiction over his own diocese. The archbishop as metropolitan has some supervisory jurisdiction over the province. However, this is very limited. He can carry out a canonical visitation of a diocese but only if the diocesan bishop fails to do so. He can appoint a diocesan administrator in a diocese that is sede vacante but only if that diocese’s college of consultors fails to do so in the prescribed time limit.

As for titular bishops they are not ordinaries. Titular bishops are given titular dioceses because it has been the tradition in the Church that every bishop is the ‘Bishop of somewhere’. It is not an office. For example, a bishop can have the episcopal title of ‘Titular Bishop of X’ and appointed to the office of ‘Auxiliary Bishop of the Diocese of Y’.
 
Dear brother JReducation,
OK, so Brother, help me to understand the part that I bolded in red. In the Roman Church, there is an understanding that the pope need not explain himself when he uses his ordinary authority. For example, he can pull a bishop from a diocese and wave off the questions. Granted, it would not be the most diplomatic thing to do, but he can do it. He has that kind of power No one can appeal to a higher authority, because there is no higher authority.
I’m afraid you cannot appeal to the highlighted portion of brother ByzCath’s post to justify your position. You need to take that canon in the context from which it originated.

Canon 45 S3 comes from paragraph 5 of Chapter 3 regarding V1’s Decree on the Primacy. That paragraph concerns the right of recourse to the Roman Pontiff as supreme judge. It is in the context of the appellate authority of the Pope that Canon 45 S3 comes to us. This means that there have been judgments by other tribunals, other head bishops, on which the Pope would base his final decision. He does not make such decisions in a vacuum, without the (name removed by moderator)ut of his brother bishops, much less that he does not need to explain his decision. In other words, Canon 45 S3 does not authorize the Pope to be able to make judgments out of the blue. Far from it.

One can also counter your position from other canons which indicate that acquired rights of juridical persons cannot be taken away except for just cause. A bishop’s territorial jurisdiction is an acquired right, and the Pope cannot take it away all of sudden without any need to justify his action (your position).

Eastern and Oriental Catholics don’t seek to demean the authority of the Pope, but neither will we allow it to be exaggerated to such extremes that could diminish the likelihood of reuion with our Orthodox brethren. We only seek to realize the true intent of the Vatican Councils and the Canons, as well as to heed the exhortations of HH JP2 of thrice-blessed memory and HH Pope Benedict XVI to seek an understanding of the papacy according to the standards of the undivided Church of the first millenium.
Do the Oriental Catholics, especially the hierarchy, accept that the pope has this kind of power in the Eastern Churches or is his authority limited and if so, who monitors and regulates him?
You ask about “this kind of power.” Most of us are just laymen here, but I, personally, believe the positions I have expressed about the power of the Pope is more faithful to V1, V2 and the Canons than what you have so far proposed.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Matthew,
If I may please let me clarify several points. An archbishop is not the ordinary of the other dioceses within an ecclesiastical province. An ecclesiastical province comprises of a minimum of two sees. One of these will be an archdiocese, the remaining ones will be dioceses. The archdiocese is called the metropolitan see of the province and the dioceses are called the suffragan sees of the province.

The archbishop exercises ordinary jurisdiction over his own archdiocese but not over any of the dioceses in his province. Each bishop of each diocese in the province exercises ordinary jurisdiction over his own diocese. The archbishop as metropolitan has some supervisory jurisdiction over the province. However, this is very limited. He can carry out a canonical visitation of a diocese but only if the diocesan bishop fails to do so. He can appoint a diocesan administrator in a diocese that is sede vacante but only if that diocese’s college of consultors fails to do so in the prescribed time limit.

As for titular bishops they are not ordinaries. Titular bishops are given titular dioceses because it has been the tradition in the Church that every bishop is the ‘Bishop of somewhere’. It is not an office. For example, a bishop can have the episcopal title of ‘Titular Bishop of X’ and appointed to the office of ‘Auxiliary Bishop of the Diocese of Y’.
You have faithfully described an archbishop/metropolitan in the Latin Catholic Church. But an archbishop/metropolitan in the Eastern and Oriental Catholic Churches is a different animal.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Read the 1918 commentary on the 1917 code of canon law. It clarifies terms and what not.

I Do not deny anything that the 1st Vatican council taught. I believe the terms used have specific meanings and ARE NOT OPEN to casual interpretation.

They must be interpreted under the definitions given by canon law. SO, let’s look that up and see what happens.

I agree that “Dethroning” the Pope is not really conducive to Catholic SPirituality, but neither is enflating his office beyond what is canonical.

When it comes to this issue, the best thing is to stick to the Law. THat’s all MArdukm and I are trying to show, the terms as defined by canon law.
 
Read the 1918 commentary on the 1917 code of canon law. It clarifies terms and what not.

I Do not deny anything that the 1st Vatican council taught. I believe the terms used have specific meanings and ARE NOT OPEN to casual interpretation.

They must be interpreted under the definitions given by canon law. SO, let’s look that up and see what happens.

I agree that “Dethroning” the Pope is not really conducive to Catholic SPirituality, but neither is enflating his office beyond what is canonical.

When it comes to this issue, the best thing is to stick to the Law. THat’s all MArdukm and I are trying to show, the terms as defined by canon law.
Then shouldn’t you use the commentary on the current Codes of Canon Law rather than the commentary on the old code?
 
Dear brother Matthew,

You have faithfully described an archbishop/metropolitan in the Latin Catholic Church. But an archbishop/metropolitan in the Eastern and Oriental Catholic Churches is a different animal.

Blessings,
Marduk
I know but my post was in response to another description of the Latin Church. I am aware that the hierarchy in the Chaldean, Eastern, and Oriental Catholic Churches is different. I meant no slight to the Eastern Churches.
 
I am trying to find it. lol. But it shows the mentality of the Bishops of the TIme, which was closer to Vatican 1, and so is not out of context.
 
I am trying to find it. lol. But it shows the mentality of the Bishops of the TIme, which was closer to Vatican 1, and so is not out of context.
But it sort of is out of context when you attempt to use a commentary for the 1917 code on the 1983 code.
 
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